Laboratory Attender Questions and Answers

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Code: 243/2023
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Laboratory Attender
Department: Homoeopathy
Cat. Number: 414/2022
Date of Test : 20.12.2023





Identify the hazard symbol.
 A) Radiation hazard
 B) Respiratory irritant
 C) Biological hazard
 d) ImAGE

2. As part of biomedical waste segregation yellow coloured non-chlorinated containers are used to collect
 A) Blood and body fluids
 B) Contaminated Metallic sharps
 C) Contaminated recyclable plastic items
 d) General waste

3. Which one of the following is an accreditation agency for testing and calibration laboratories in India ?
 A) NABH
 B) NABl
 C) NACl  
 d) ISI

4. A low fixed specific gravity of Urine is an indication for
 A) Chronic diabetes mellitus
 B) Chronic diabetes insipidus
 C) Chronic renal failure
 d) Acute renal failure

5. Fruity odour in urine specifically indicate presence of
 A) maple syrup urine disease
 B) Bacteria
 C) Ketone bodies
 d) Sugars

6. Bence – Jones Proteins are
 A) Albumin
 B) Immunoglobulin
 C) microalbumin
 d) lipoprotein

7. Normally there is no presence of glucose in urine sample. What is the renal threshold for glucose ?
 A) 70 – 110 mg%
 B) 150 mg%
 C) 120 – 150 mg%
 d) 180 mg%

8. Hay’s test is done in urine sample for the detection of
 A) Sodium taurocholate
 B) Sodium gluconate
 C) Bilirubin
 d) Bilicyanin

9. In obstructive jaundice
 A) Urine conjugated bilirubin is high and urobilinogen is decreased
 B) Urine unconjugated bilirubin is high and urobilinogen is decreased
 C) Urobilinogen is high giving a cherry red colour
 D) Urine is colourless



Identify the urine crystal.
 A) Cholesterol crystal
 B) Tyrosine crystal
 C) Cystine crystal
 d) Oxalate crystal

11. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is hormone that is released by placenta can be detected in
 A) Urine sample only
 B) Urine and blood sample
 C) Pleural fluid
 D) None of the above

12. Curschmann’s spirals are seen in sputum in
 A) Bronchial Asthma
 B) Pneumonia
 C) Tuberculosis
 d) None of the above

13. Which is the most preferred concentration method for parasites in faecal sample ?
 A) Saturated sodium chloride method
 B) Zinc sulphate floatation technique
 C) Formal ether concentration technique
 d) Simple centrifugation method

14. Which one of the following gives false negative results with Benzidine test for Occult blood ?
 A) Intake of large amount aspirin
 B) Intake of red meat
 C) Intake of Iron tablets
 d) Intake of large amount of Vitamin C

15. Necrozoospermia is referred to which condition ?
 A) Presence of no sperm in semen
 B) Presence of a few sperm in the semen
 C) Presence of non-viable and non-motile sperm
 d) Presence of headless sperm

16. Which sugar is present in semen sample ?
 A) Glucose
 B) Fructose
 C) maltose
 d) Sucrose

17. Spider web coagulam or cobweb is usually seen in CSF in cases of
 A) Tuberculous meningitis
 B) Syphilis
 C) Pneumonia
 d) All of the above

18. New glassware is soaked in 1% HCI solution and washed thoroughly, this is done because
 A) To remove dirt in the glassware
 B) To remove stains in the glassware
 C) To remove the mild alkalinity in the glassware
 d) To make the glassware durable

19. diffraction grating is used in spectrophotometer for
 A) Reducing the light transmitted
 B) measurement of intensity of light transmitted
 C) For providing narrower wavelength monochromatic light
 d) For measuring the intensity of light absorbed

20. For detection of elemental analysis, we use
 A) Flame photometer
 B) Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
 C) Inductively coupled plasma
 d) All of the above

21. Glucose Challenge Test (GCT) is done in Pregnant ladies at
 A) 8 – 12 weeks of Gestation
 B) 24 – 28 weeks of Gestation
 C) 12 – 24 weeks of Gestation
 d) First week of Pregnancy

22. Fasting plasma Glucose concentration exceeding ___________ mg/dl in more than one occasion is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus.
 A) 100
 B) 110
 C) 126
 d) 160

23. Ideal Exogenous marker for GFR to assess kidney function
 A) Inulin
 B) Creatinine
 C) Cystatin C
 D) Urea

24. Which of the following is true for both Kidney and liver disease ?
 A) Urine Albumin is decreased
 B) Serum Albumin is decreased
 C) Serum Creatinine is increased
 D) Urine Creatinine is increased

25. Tests based on detoxication function of liver include
 A) Brom Sulphthalein test
 B) Rose Bengal dye test
 C) Hippuric acid test
d) None of the above

26. Negative Thymol Turbidity and Positive Jirgl’s Flocculation test is seen in
 A) Haemolytic Jaundice
 B) Hepatic Jaundice
 C) Prehepatic Jaundice
 d) Obstructive Jaundice

27. ln the colon by action of enzyme systems of intestinal microorganisms two Vinyl groups of Bilirubin are reduced to Ethyl groups to form
 A) Biliverdin
 B) mesobilirubin
 C) Stercobilinogen
 d) mesobilirubinogen

28. Find the right combination.
 i. Increased amount of unconjugated Bilirubin
 ii. Tumour in head of pancreas
 iii. Incomplete blood transfusion
 iv. dark brown colour of faeces
 v. malaria
 A) i, iii, ii and v
 B) ii, v, i and iv
 C) i, iv, v and iii
 d) i, ii, iii and iv

29. Hypercholesterolemia is seen when serum cholesterol increases above
 A) 240 mg/dl
 B) 200 mg/dl
 C) 280 mg/dl
 d) 180 mg/dl

30. Serum Amylase test is done for the diagnosis of
 A) myocardial Infarction
 B) Pancreatitis
 C) Obstructive Jaundice
 d) Both B) and C)

31. CA 125 is a tumour marker for
 A) Ovarian cancer
 B) Colorectal cancer
 C) Pancreatic Carcinoma
 d) None of the above

32. Hypernatremia is seen in
 A) Chronic renal disease with acidosis
 B) Addison’s disease
 C) Excessive water consumption
 d) Cushing’s disease

33. milk ejection Hormone
 A) Prolactin
 B) Vasopressin
 C) Oxytocin
 d) Oestrogen

34. Closeness of result to the true value refers to
 A) Sensitivity  
 B) BIAS
 C) Precision
 d) Accuracy

35. Number of Test Results produced per Hour in an Automated machine is known as
 A) dwell time
 B) Throughput
 C) STAT
 d) Intervention Time

36. The person having no signs and symptoms of disease and can infect another person is called Carrier. If a carrier acquires infection from another carrier the person is
called
 A) Paradoxical Carrier
 B) Contact Carrier
 C) Temporary Carrier
 d) All of the above

37. Which of the following Bacteria is motile with Endoflagella ?
 A) Vibrio
 B) Klebsiella
 C) leptospira
 d) Salmonella

38. Plasmids in bacteria
 A) Give antibiotic resistance to host bacterium
 B) They are extrachromosomal genetic material
 C) Transfer information from one cell to another
 d) All of the above

39. Autoclave is used for the sterilization of all except
 A) Grease
 B) Surgical equipment
 C) Culture media
 d) None of the above

40. Find the right pair.
 i. lJ medium
 ii. Sugar medium
 iii. Tyndallization
 iv. Holder method
 v. Inspissation
 A) i and iv
 B) i and iii
 C) ii and v
 d) ii and iii

41. Endoscope is sterilized using
 A) Phenol
 B) Glutaraldehyde
 C) Autoclave
 d) Ethylene Oxide

42. Concentration of Agar in culture broth is
 A) 4.5%
 B) 1.5%
 C) 0%
 d) None of these

43. In Fluid medium, bacterial growth detected by
 A) Turbidity
 B) deposit
 C) Nature of surface growth
 d) All of these

44. Which of the following is low selective and differential medium ?
 A) Chocolate agar
 B) macConkey agar
 C) Blood agar
 d) All of these

45. Which of the following used to detect bacterial motility ?
 A) mannitol motility medium
 B) motility indoleurea medium
 C) Hanging drop motility test
 d) All of these

46. ___________ is act as mordant in Ziehl Neelsen staining.
 A) Acetone
 B) 20% H2SO4
 C) Phenol
 d) All of these

47. Antibody that cross placenta give protection, to baby after birth till its own immunity begins to develop
 A) IgG
 B) Igm
 C) Ige
 d) IgA

48. The strength of binding of Antigen with Antibody is
 A) Avidity
 B) Affinity
 C) Titre
 d) All of these

49. Widal Test is used for diagnosis of
 A) Typhoid
 B) Syphilis
 C) Rheumatoid Arthritis
 d) All of these

50. The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection is
 A) Proteus
 B) E.Coli
 C) Klebsiella
 d) Pseudomonas

51. A spider web clot formed in CSF specimen after standing
 A) Pneumococcal meningitis
 B) Tuberculous meningitis
 C) Neisseria meningitis
 d) All of these

52. Sputum smear is prepared by
 A) Salivary
 B) Purulent
 C) Blood muco purulent
 d) All of these

53. Antimicrobial sensitivity testing most helpful for
 A) Prevent side effect
 B) Prevent resistance to other pathogenic organism
 C) Selecting effective antimicrobial drug
 d) All of these
 
54. Viruses are
 A) Intracellular parasite
 B) Posses only RNA or dNA
 C) Unable to reproduce
 D) All of these

55. A vector is an organism act as
 A) Carrier
 B) Transmit parasite from one body to another
 C) Insects are most common
 d) All of these

56. True about thick blood smear examination
 A) 50 times more chance to detect parasites
 B) Species identification possible
 C) Only parasitic body seen
 d) All of these
 
57. malaria caused by
 A) Plasmodium
 B) Microfilaria
 C) Trypanosomes
 d) leishmania

58. Ideal rapid water soluble stain for thick blood smear examination
 A) Hematoxylene
 B) JSB
 C) Wrightstain
 d) leishman stain

59. Lab diagnosis of filariasis done by
 A) Wetfilm
 B) Stained blood smear
 C) lymphnode biopsy
 d) All of these

60. Ova of Enterobius characterised by
 A) Planoconcave
 B) Colorless
 C) Enclosed in shell
 d) All of these

61. Fixation plays important role in
 A) Prevent putrefaction autolysis
 B) Hardening of soft tissues
 C) Refractive index change
 d) All of these

62. Which of the following is not a property of formalin as a fixative ?
 A) Cheap and easy to prepare
 B) A pleasant smell
 C) Good tissue penetration
 d) Prevent autolysis and putrefaction

63. Which is the special procedure required before tissue processing for tissues like teeth or bones ?
 A) dehydration
 B) Clearing
 C) Decalcification
 D) Impregnation

64. Name the chemical which is not included in the PAP staining procedure.
 A) OG 6
 B) methylene Blue
 C) E A 36
 d) Harris haematoxylin

65. In FNAC the letter ‘N’ stands for
 A) Normal
 B) Nuclear
 C) Needle
 d) Number

66. Among the cell organelles protein synthesis is performed by
 A) Nucleus
 B) mitochondria
 C) lysosome  
 d) Ribosomes

67. Study about tissues is called
 A) Histology
 B) Toxicology
 C) Cytology  
 d) mycology

68. The hormone TSH is produced by
 A) Thyroid
 B) Adrenal
 C) Parathyroid
 d) Pituitary gland

69. The instrument used to measure the electrical activity of Heart is
 A) Sphygmomanometer
 B) Electrocardiograph
 C) Electroencephalogram
 d) Electrocardiogram

70. Pulse can be measured from
 A) Brachial artery
 B) Radial artery    
 C) Carotid artery
 d) All of the above
 
71. Glass Pipets with a long narrow tip is called
 A) Graduated pipets
 B) Pasteur pipets
 C) Blood pipets
 d) Volumetric pipets
     
72. Solution used in calorimeter with all reagents and without sample to be tested are called
 A) Test solution
 B) Standard
 C) Blank
 d) Positive control

73. Equipment flame photometer is used to measure
 A) Hormones
 B) Electrolytes
 C) Enzymes
 d) Vitamins

74. Which of the following blood cell having maximum weight ?
 A) monocyte
 B) Epithelial cells
 C) large lymphocyte
 d) Red blood cell

75. Example for a natural anticoagulant
 A) Heparin
 B) EdTA
 C) Sodium citrate
 d) double oxalate

76. Needles used to collect blood from infants are with a Gauge of
 A) 16
 B) 21
 C) 23
 d) None of the above

77. Which of the protein present in plasma and not in serum ?
 A) Albumen  
 B) Globulin
 C) Immunoglobulin
 d) Fibrinogen

78. Cells that increase during allergy are
 A) monocytes
 B) RBC
 C) Eosinophils
 d) Platelets

79. Which is the commonly used anticoagulant for ESR estimation by Westergren’s method ?
 A) Trisodium citrate
 B) Heparin
 C) EdTA
 d) ACd solution

80. When WBCs are counted manually by Tuerk’s reagent, blood is diluted by ratio
 A) 1 : 100
 B) 1 : 50
 C) 1 : 20
 d) 1 : 10
                                            
81. New methylene blue stain is used for staining which type of blood cells ?
 A) Platelets
 B) Reticulocytes
 C) Spherocytes
 d) monocytes

82. The normal total platelet count in adult is
 A) 1.5 – 4.5 lakhs/cu mm of blood
 B) 6.5 – 9.5 lakhs/cu mm of blood
 C) 2.5 – 5.5 millions/cu mm of blood
 d) 4.5 – 6.5 millions/cu mm of blood

83. Which test does not monitor a patient’s coagulation mechanism ?
 A) PT
 B) APTT
 C) TT
 d) ACTH

84. The cellular components of buffy coat are
 A) RBCs and Platelets
 B) WBCs and Platelets
 C) RBCs and WBCs
 d) RBCs and Reticulocytes

85. The speed and the time selected for PCV test by Wintrobe’s method
 A) 3000 RPm and 30 minutes
 B) 2000 RPm and 20 minutes
 C) 5000 RPm and 30 minutes
 d) 2500 RPm and 20 minutes

86. lymphocytes normally comprise _____________ % of the total WBCs.
 A) 10 %
 B) 30 %
 C) 40 %
 d) 60 %

87. What cell shape is most commonly associated with increased mCHC ?
 A) drepanocyte
 B) leptocyte
 C) Ovalocyte
 d) Spherocyte

88. Parasitic infections and allergic reactions cause an increase in
 A) Neutrophils
 B) Eosinophils
 C) Basophils
 d) monocytes

89. The most popular method of haemoglobin estimation is
 A) Sahli’s method
 B) Oxyhaemoglobin method
 C) Alkaline haematin method
 d) Cyanmeth haemoglobin method

90. The solvent in leishman’s stain is
 A) Acetone
 B) Acetone free methyl alcohol
 C) Ethyl alcohol
 d) distilled water

91. For coagulation studies, blood is mixed with the anticoagulant in the ratio of
 A) 1 : 4
 B) 4 : 1
 C) 1 : 9
 d) 9 : 1
 
92. All of the following are uses of WBC pipette except
 A) Absolute Eosinophil count
 B) CSF cell count
 C) Platelet count
 d) Sperm count

93. The factor that increases the ESR is
 A) Exposure to sunlight
 B) Presence of excess albumin
 C) Unclean tubes
 D) Presence of microcytes
       
94. Blood group antigen present on the surface of
 A) RBC
 B) WBC
 C) Platelet
 d) lymphocyte

95. If Anti A and Anti B antibodies are seen in a person, then what is the blood group of that person ?
 A) A
 B) B
 C) O
 d) AB

96. The anticoagulant used in blood bag is
 A) EdTA  
 B) CPdA
 C) Heparin
 d) double Oxalate
 
97. Bombay Blood group can be detected by
 A) ABO Grouping
 B) Rh Grouping
 C) Forward Grouping
 d) Reverse Grouping

98. In major cross matching technique
 A) Patient’s cells are mixed with donor serum
 B) donor cells are mixed with Patient’s serum
 C) Both A) and B)
d) None of the above

99. Which one of the following is transfusion transmitted infection ?
 A) AIdS
 B) Hepatitis
 C) Syphilis
 d) All of the above

100. The colour of Anti AB serum is
 A) Pink
 B) Blue
 C) yellow
 d) Colourless