Name of Post: Junior Co-operative Inspector
Department: Kerala Khadi & Village Industries Board
Cat.No: 309/2019
Date of Test: 16.10. 2020
Question Code: 026/2020
1. _______ is an economic order where various economics activities are carried out by private individuals for the sake of private profit.
(A) Capitalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Co-Operation
(D) Communism
2. _______ implies economic, political and social brotherhood among the Co- Operatives of the various countries of the world.
(A) Co-Operative Common wealth
(B) Consumer Sovergnity
(C) Communism
(D) ICA
3. International Co-Operative Alliance (ICA) founded in the year :
(A) 1888
(B) 1890
(C) 1895
(D) 1893
4. There are _______ Principles of Co-Operation revised by ICA in 1995.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 8
5. Karvey commission submitted its report in the year :
(A) 1968
(B) 1969
(C) 1967
(D) 1966
6. _______ is not a principle of Co-Operation.
(A) Open and Voluntary membership
(B) Autonomy and Independence
(C) Co-Operative Common Wealth
(D) Concern for community
7. Rochdale Equitable pioneers society in England was found in the year :
(A) 1856
(B) 1833
(C) 1854
(D) 1844
8. The magazine, ‘The Co-Operator’ is published by :
(A) NCUI
(B) NCCT
(C) NCCE
(D) ICA
9. _______ is the journal in Co-operative sector published by information Bureau, Co- Operative department, Kerala.
(A) Kerala Sahakarana Journal
(B) Sahakarana Veedhi
(C) Karshaka sree
(D) Sahakarana Weekly
10. Single purpose Co-Operative societies are exclusively been organised in :
(A) India
(B) Denmark
(C) Germany
(D) Japan
11. NCDC was established in the year :
(A) 1965
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1968
12. Large sized societies were expected to have large membership ranging between _______ to _______.
(A) 100 to 400
(B) 300 to 500
(C) 200 to 500
(D) 400 to 800
13. KSCARDB was established in the year :
(A) 1958
(B) 1948
(C) 1956
(D) 1950
14. NABARD was established in the year :
(A) 1982
(B) 1984
(C) 1948
(D) 1977
15. Kerala state has adopted ————————— system of organisation for marketing Co-Operatives.
(A) One tier
(B) Two tier
(C) Three tier
(D) Four tier
16. Which Co-Operative is established for the development of tribes in India?
(A) Lamps
(B) NAFED
(C) IFFCO
(D) KRIBHCO
17. National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is constituted in the year :
(A) 1968
(B) 1960
(C) 1965
(D) 1970
18. Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co-Operatives (HANTEX) was established in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1965
(D) 1961
19. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee is also Known as :
(A) Gorwala Committee
(B) Khusro Committee
(C) Mclagan Committee
(D) Vaidyanathan Committee
20. Kerala Co-Operative Societies Act was passed in the year :
(A) 1970
(B) 1969
(C) 1960
(D) 1932
21. RBI Act was passed in the year :
(A) 1935
(B) 1934
(C) 1912
(D) 1920
22. The Chairman of Co-Operative Planning Committee was :
(A) Frederick Nicholson
(B) Vaidyanathan
(C) R.G. Saraiyya
(D) Khusro
23. The Statutory Responsibility of Audit of Co-Operative Society is Vested with :
(A) Auditor
(B) Director
(C) Member
(D) Registrar
24. _______ is a written and predetermined plan of action for conducting an audit.
(A) Audit Programme
(B) Concurrent Audit
(C) Continuous Audit
(D) Audit Memorandum
25. _______ is the backbone of auditing.
(A) Verification
(B) Valuation
(C) Vouching
(D) Scrutiny
26. Section 44 of Kerala Co-operative societies Amendment act 2013, deals with _______ Fund.
(A) Subsidiary state partnership fund
(B) Principal State Partnership Fund
(C) Reserve Fund
(D) Contingency Fund
27. As per Kerala Co-operative Societies Act, 1969, every society should set apart not less than _______ of net profit towards its reserve fund.
(A) 20%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 5%
28. As per Kerala Co-Operative Societies Act 1969, every society should set apart not more than _______ of net profit towards its common Good Fund.
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%
29. _______ Fund created out of annual net profit of the Co-Operative society for meeting unforeseen losses or expenses in connection with winding up of the society.
(A) Reserve Fund
(B) Common Good Fund
(C) Dividend Equalization Fund
(D) Bad debt Reserve
30. Subsidies and grants available from government to a co-operative society forms as part of its :
(A) Authorised capital
(B) Fixed capital
(C) Working Capital
(D) Paid - Up- Capital
31. _______ is the fee payable to the Government by the co-operative societies for conducting Concurrent audit.
(A) Audit cost
(B) Audit fee
(C) Audit Commission
(D) Audit remuneration
32. _______ means a special charge on movable or immovable property created in favour of a co-operative institution which deals with credit activities.
(A) Pledge
(B) Gehan
(C) Hypothecation
(D) Mortgage
33. _______ is the appellate authority vested with powers of Appeal, Revision and Review.
(A) Tribunal
(B) Registrar
(C) Circle Co-Operate Union
(D) Govt.
34. The Kerala Co-Operative Tribunal has _______ members.
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) One
35. An Appeal to the Co-Operative Tribunal can be filed within _______ days from the date of such order, decision or award.
(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 60
(D) 30
36. Sec. 84 of Co-Operative Societies act deals with :
(A) Degree by Tribunal
(B) Revision by Tribunal
(C) Order by Tribunal
(D) Award by Tribunal
37. The responsibility of Co-Operative audit is entrusted with :
(A) Registrar
(B) Director of Co-Operative Audit
(C) Junior Auditors
(D) Internal Auditor
38. Maximum amount to be paid by the Co-Operative society as audit fee is :
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Rs. 75,000
(D) Rs. 1,50,000
39. Head of the co-operative department is :
(A) Director
(B) Chairman
(C) Registrar
(D) Secretary
40. The final authority of a Co-Operative society shall be vested with :
(A) Board of directors
(B) General Body
(C) Secretary
(D) Managing Committee
41. All India Co-Operative Congress was held at :
(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1945
(D) 1956
42. The agricultural refinance corporation was setup in :
(A) 1960
(B) 1950
(C) 1962
(D) 1965
43. Multi - State Co-Operative societies Act was enacted in the year :
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1982
(D) 1984
44. _______ Commission Submitted the report for framing co-operative societies Act, 1904.
(A) Sir Edward Law
(B) Frederick Nicholson
(C) Vaidynathan
(D) Venkata Pai
45. Andhra Mutually aided Co-Operative Act came into existence on :
(A) 1990
(B) 1992
(C) 1995
(D) 1980
46. _______ operates under state domination.
(A) Capitalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Communism
(D) All of the above
47. The apex body of ICA is :
(A) Executive committee
(B) Director
(C) General Assembly
(D) General Secretary
48. Rochdale Equitable pioneers society in England came into existence in the year :
(A) 1980
(B) 1844
(C) 1884
(D) 1484
49. Capitalism is an economic order where various economic activities are carried out by :
(A) Government
(B) Society
(C) Private individuals
(D) Public Enterprises
50. CONSUMER FED was started in the year :
(A) 1965
(B) 1963
(C) 1980
(D) 1975
51. The RBI has created _______ a specialized financial institution for insuring the deposits in banks.
(A) IDBI
(B) DICGC
(C) NABARD
(D) EXIM Bank
52. _______ is an agency function of a bank.
(A) Payment of insurance premium on direction of customers
(B) Providing locker facility
(C) Sanctioning a loan to a customer
(D) Discounting bills of exchange
53. The Reserve Bank was nationalized in :
(A) 1934
(B) 1926
(C) 1935
(D) 1949
54. The risk based supervisory framework adopted by RBI from 2013 is known as :
(A) SPARK
(B) CAMELS
(C) NPA
(D) None of the above
55. The first note issued by independent India was
(A) Rupee One Note
(B) Rupee Ten Note
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
56. The Regional Rural Banks, State Co-operative Banks, District Central Co-operative Banks are regulated by :
(A) National Housing Bank
(B) Ministry of Company Affairs
(C) NABARD
(D) IRDA
57. Bank of Calcutta and Bank of Bengal were the names of ————————— bank.
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) Canara Bank
(D) Central Bank of India
58. Principle functions of banks are :
(i) Accepting deposits
(ii) Lending
(iii) Investing
(iv) Non-fund business and remittance services
(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
59. The objectives of KYC are :
(A) To ensure that he/she would not deceive the bank.
(B) To ensure appropriate customer identification.
(C) To monitor transactions of suspicious nature.
(D) Only (B) and (C)
60. What relationship is created when the bank collects a cheque is clearing?
(A) Holder for value
(B) Collecting bank and holder
(C) Agent and principal
(D) Clearing member and principal
61. Credit risk to the bank is high from the :
(A) Credit card holders
(B) Debit card holders
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
62. Garnishee order is issued by a :
(A) Police officer
(B) Revenue officer
(C) CID
(D) Courts of law
63. Sans recourse means :
(A) Without fear
(B) Without physical touch
(C) Without liability to me
(D) Without liability to payee
64. Under farm mechanization scheme, loan is given to farmer for :
(A) Providing cultivation expenses
(B) Providing irrigation facilities
(C) Purchase of farm equipment
(D) All of the above
65. Pick the correct statement from the following :
(A) SLR is lower than CRR
(B) RBI started functioning from 1st April 1934
(C) Notes in denomination of Re. 1 to Rs 1000 are issued by RBI
(D) A decrease in Bank Rate is likely to lead to a decrease in interest rates of banks.
66. Maintenance of the following books, registers is not compulsory for SHG :
(A) Minutes book
(B) Savings and Loan register
(C) Visitor's book
(D) Member's passbook
67. Wholesale banking refers to doing banking business with :
(A) Individuals
(B) Industrial and business entities-including government and public sector companies.
(C) Only companies registered under Companies Act
(D) Large borrowers irrespective of their category
68. Which is the oldest functioning Joint Stock Bank in India?
(A) Bank of Upper India
(B) Allahabad Bank
(C) Punjab National Bank
(D) None of the above
69. For the first time 14 major commercial banks were nationalized by the Indian Government in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1969
(D) 1980
70. The following statement regarding Payment Banks is false :
(A) Payment Banks are registered as Public Limited Company under Companies Act 2013.
(B) Payment Banks can offer current and savings account.
(C) Payment Banks can offer Net Banking and Mobile Banking.
(D) Payment Banks can accept deposits upto 2 lakhs per customer.
71. The maximum age for joining in the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is :
(A) 40 Years
(B) 50 Years
(C) 60 Years
(D) 70 Years
72. _______ scheme will offer a renewable one year death cum disability cover of rupees two lakhs to all savings bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 70 years for a premium of Rs 12/- per annum per subscriber.
(A) PMSBY
(B) PMJJBY
(C) APY
(D) None of the above
73. _______ is a life insurance scheme, which covers the death of the insured, regardless of the cause of the death.
(A) PMSBY
(B) PMJJBY
(C) APY
(D) None of the above
74. The bank ombudsman can now pass an award (penalty) upto _______ lakhs.
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
75. The Clayton's Rule is applicable in case of :
(A) Maintaining secrecy of customers account
(B) Dishonor of cheques
(C) Right of general lien
(D) Appropriation of payment in a running account
76. The right of general lien can be exercised in the following cases :
(A) When the valuables are deposited for safe custody
(B) When some securities are left with the bank by mistake
(C) When some securities are held by the bank as a banker
(D) When the property is held by the customer as trustee and the bank has notice of the trust
77. FEMA is the acronym of :
(A) Foreign Express Mail Account
(B) Foreign Exchange Mail Act
(C) Foreign Exchange Management Account
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
78. Pick the statement that is not true in case of a bank account of a Joint Hindu Family :
(A) The account should clearly indicate that it is a JHF
(B) The eldest male member of the JHF is the karta
(C) All co-parceners should sign the loan documents
(D) Death/Lunacy/Insolvancy of a co-parcener dissolves the JHF
79. After the Small Finance Bank reaches the net worth of _______ listing will be mandatory within three years of reaching that net worth.
(A) 100 crores
(B) 300 crores
(C) 500 crores
(D) None of the above
80. An entity can be termed as a ‘Bank’ if :
(A) A firm or company or an individual accepts deposits for lending or investment
(B) A firm or company is incorporated under Indian Companies Act and accepts deposits for lending or investment.
(C) They are Money lenders who lend money
(D) None of the above
81. If a customer keeps certain valuables or securities with the bank for safekeeping, the bank is a :
(A) Bailee
(B) Trustee
(C) Only (A)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
82. Demand deposits are those which can be withdrawn :
(A) On request
(B) On demand
(C) On sanction by manager
(D) All of the above
83. Banker's lien is an/a :
(A) Bailment of goods
(B) Implied pledge
(C) Agreement
(D) Stoppage
84. A minor for whom the court has appointed a guardian attains majority on completion of :
(A) 21 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 17 years
85. Delegation of power under a trust is :
(A) Possible
(B) Not possible
(C) Beneficiary's permission
(D) Charity commissioner's permission
86. One of the following statements is not true with respect to RTGS
(A) Funds are transferrable from the branch of one bank to the branch of another bank
(B) Only the corporate and government departments can avail of the facility
(C) The RTGS system is maintained and operated by the RBI
(D) Each participant bank, in RTGS will be required to open a dedicated settlement account for putting through its RTGS transaction.
87. Security features available with smart cards are
(A) Multiple pins
(B) Retinal pattern verification
(C) Dynamic signature verification
(D) All of the above
88. Demand Draft is issued by the banks to be valid for, Multiple pins
(A) 12 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 3 months
(D) None of the above
89. Security features available with smart cards are
(A) Multiple pins
(B) Retinal pattern verification
(C) Dynamic signature verification
(D) All of the above
90. When banks give home loans, the nature of charge created is
(A) Hypothecation
(B) Mortgage
(C) Assignment
(D) Pledge
91. The key in a standard keyboard which deletes one character before the cursor is
(A) Backspace
(B) DEL
(C) Home
(D) End
92. Which of the following is also referred to as a console?
(A) Monitor screen
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Read Only Memory
(D) Keyboard
93. A platter of a hard disk is divided into
(A) Tracks and sectors
(B) Tracks only
(C) Sectors only
(D) Cylinders
94. The popular image editor GIMP starts for
(A) Graphics Image Manipulation Program
(B) Greatest Image Manipulation Program
(C) Graphics inbuilt manipulation program
(D) GNU Image Manipulation Program
95. The small memory which can be kept inside a central processing unit is referred as
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) Registers
(D) Drive
96. The network device that can read the MAC address of source and destination computers is
(A) Bridge
(B) Repeater
(C) Hub
(D) Switch
97. Which of the following is not a search engine?
(A) Yandex
(B) Find
(C) StartPage
(D) DuckDuckgo
98. Which of the following is correct code while designing a web page ?
(A) <html> <body> <head> </head> </body> </html>
(B) <head> <html> <body> </body> </html> </head>
(C) <html> <head> <body> <head> </body> </html>
(D) <html> <head> </head> <body> </body> </html>
99. The practice of registering an Internet domain name that is likely to be wanted by another famous person or business
(A) IP spoofing
(B) IP hacking
(C) Cyber squatting
(D) Cyber auction
100. Which of the following is a system software?
(A) Notepad
(B) Ubuntu
(C) Microsoft word
(D) Device driver
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