Treatment Organiser Gr.II Question Paper and Answer Key

 Question Code: 46/2019

Name of the Post: Treatment Organiser Gr.II

Department: Health Services (KLM,KTM,MPM,KKD Districts)

Cat.No :279/2018

Date of Test ; 24/09/2019

Provisional Answer Key

1. There are two sets of teeth present in the life time of man. This type of dentition is
known as :
(A) Thecodont
(B) Diphyodont
(C) Homodont
(D) Heterodont

2. The volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is known as :
(A) Vital capacity
(B) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(C) Tidal Volume
(D) Expiratory Reserve Volume

3. The respiratory pigment seen in the blood of man which give red colour to blood :
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Haemerythrin
(C) Haemocyanin
(D) Chlorocruorin

4. Which one of the following is a part of pectoral girdle?
(A) Ilium
(B) Ischium
(C) Pubis
(D) Clavicle

5. Which cells present in the stomach is responsible for secreting HCl?
(A) Oxyntic cells
(B) Chief cells
(C) Mucus neck cells
(D) Goblet cells

6. Which blood group is known as Universal Donor?
(A) A group
(B) B group
(C) AB group
(D) O group

7. An auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading paralysis :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Tetany

8. Name the junction which is seen in between neurons :
(A) Neuromuscular junction
(B) Dendrite
(C) Synapse
(D) Axonite

9. The structural and functional unit of kidney is known as :
(A) Nephron
(B) Neuron
(C) Pelvic
(D) Calyx

10. Name the enzyme present in saliva :
(A) Lipase
(B) Protease
(C) Nuclease
(D) Amylase

11. Which one of the following is a part of limbic system of Brain?
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Amygdala
(C) Cerebrum
(D) Cerebellum

12. The embryo with 8–16, blastomeres are known as :
(A) Gastrula
(B) Blastula
(C) Morula
(D) Blastocyst

13. The main mineralo corticoid in our body is :
(A) Cortisol
(B) Androgen
(C) Glucagon
(D) Aldosterone

14. Name the hormone secreted from pineal gland :
(A) Melatonin 
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Prolactin
(D) Epinephrine

15. Fertilisation in human beings takes place at :
(A) Vagina
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Ovary
(D) Uterus

16. Which is responsible for secreting the hormone Androgen?
(A) Sertolli cells
(B) Vas deferens
(C) Leydig cells
(D) Epididymis

17. In the eye, the maximum visual activity is seen at :
(A) Blind spot
(B) Fovea
(C) Iris
(D) Pupil

18. The deficiency of which hormone causes diabetes mellitus :
(A) Insulin 
(B) Glucagon
(C) Estrogen
(D) Progesterone

19. The cap like structure of sperm which is filled with an enzyme that help ovum penetration :
(A) Centrosome
(B) Nucleosome
(C) Mesosome
(D) Acrosome

20. The part of ear which connect middle ear cavity with pharynx is known as :
(A) Pinna
(B) Cochlea
(C) Eustachian tube 
(D) Malleus

21. Identify the tissue which can detect, receive and transmits different kinds of stimuli:
(A) Muscle
(B) Epithelium
(C) Neuron 
(D) Bone

22. The first vertebra of vertebral column of human body is:
(A) Axis
(B) Atlas
(C) Sacrum
(D) Coccyx

23. Middle layer of Adrenal cortex is known as :
(A) Zona reticularis
(B) Zona pellucida
(C) Zona fasciculata 
(D) Zona glomerulosa

24. Which of the following structure is responsible for initiating and monitoring the rhythmic
activity of the heart?
(A) SA node 
(B) AV node
(C) Bundle of His
(D) Purkinje fibres

25. Which of the following is not a part of renal tubule of nephron?
(A) Bowman’s capsule
(B) Henle’s loop
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule
(D) Glomerulus

26. Which of the following part of body is classified as true, false and floating?
(A) Vertebral column
(B) Ribs
(C) Skull
(D) Sternum

27. The innermost layer lining the lumen of alimentary canal is :
(A) Serosa
(B) Mucosa
(C) Muscularis
(D) Sub mucosa

28. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by a valve is
known as :
(A) Bicuspid valve
(B) Pyloric sphinctor
(C) Semilunar valve
(D) Tricuspid valve

29. Which part of human brain regulates body temperature, urge for eating and drinking etc.?
(A) Hypothalamus 
(B) Medulla
(C) Thalamus
(D) Cerebellum

30. Which of the following hormones are known as hyper glycaemic and hyper calcaemic?
(A) Insulin and Thyrocalcitonin
(B) Insulin and glucagon
(C) Glucagon and parathyroid 
(D) Insulin and Parathyroid

31. In ECG P wave represents :
(A) Repolarisation of ventricles
(B) Depolarisation of ventricles
(C) Repolarisation of atria
(D) Depolarisation of atria

32. Bile is produced by hepatic cells of liver which help in digestion of :
(A) Protein
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Fat 
(D) Nucleic Acid

33. In human body Urea is produced in :
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Stomach
(D) Intestine

34. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important peptide hormone which decreases blood
pressure is :

35. The following factors are favourable for formation of oxyhaemoglobin except :
(A) High PO2
(B) Low H+ concentration
(C) Low temperature
(D) High PCO2

36. Of the following pigments which one is present in rod cells of retina of eye :
(A) Visual purple
(B) Iodopsin
(C) Chlorophyll
(D) Xanthophyll

37. The protein digesting enzyme present in pancreatic juice of man is :
(A) Trypsin 
(B) Pepsin
(C) Rennin
(D) Sucrase

38. The volume of air breathed in and breathed out during normal respiration is :
(A) Expiratory Reserve volume
(B) Residual volume
(C) Tidal volume 
(D) Inspiratory Reserve volume

39. Find out the wrong statement from the following :
(A) Myasthenia gravis is an auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
(B) Tetany is the wild contractions in muscle due to low sodium ions in body fluid
(C) Muscular dystrophy is the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(D) Gout is the inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals

40. The volume of blood is pumped out by each ventricle per minute is known as :
(A) Cardiac output 
(B) Pulmonary volume
(C) Stroke volume
(D) Diastolic volume

41. The most important tool in the diagnosis of tuberculosis is :
(A) Sputum for AFBacilli 
(B) X-Ray chest
(C) Mantoux test
(D) Blood Routine Examination

42. Depression is very common in the elderly, often caused by :
(A) Feeling of hopelessness
(B) Loss of a spouse
(C) Isolation from family/friends
(D) All of the above

43. What is the name of the tiny air sacs in the lungs?
(A) Bronhioles
(B) Ravioli
(C) Alveoli 
(D) Bronchus

44. Down syndrome is characterised by :
(A) Trisomy 18
(B) Trisomy 13
(C) Trisomy 21 
(D) Trisomy 81

45. System responsible for excreting most liquid waste from the body is :
(A) Urinary system 
(B) Digestive system
(C) Endocrine system
(D) Cardio Vascular system

46. When did RNTCP was launched as a National Programme?
(A) 1995
(B) 1992
(C) 1997 
(D) 1999

47. An injury to the ligament and the Joint capsule due to sudden movement or twisting of the
part :
(A) Strain
(B) Sprain
(C) Dislocation
(D) Bruise

48. The voice box is also known as :
(A) Pharynx
(B) Bronchioles
(C) Diaphragm
(D) Larynx

49. The most common lung tumour seen in non-smokers :
(A) Small cell carcinoma
(B) Large cell carcinoma
(C) Adeno carcinoma 
(D) Squamous cell carcinoma

50. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of :
(A) Delirium
(B) Dementia
(C) Delusion
(D) Hallucination

51. Bleeding from the nose :
(A) Haemoptysis
(B) Epistaxis
(C) Hematemesis
(D) Malena

52. Which are the primary presenting features of Acute Glomerulonephritis?
(A) Decreased urine specific gravity
(B) Haematuria and proteinuria
(C) Increased BUN and Serum creatinine level
(D) Azotaemia and Oliguria

53. Which of the Hormones are produced by the Pancreas?
(A) Epinephrine and insulin
(B) Melatonin and Glucagon
(C) Insulin and Glucagon 
(D) Glucagon and Norepinephrine

54. Factors influencing hygiene practices are :
(A) Social practices
(B) Cultural beliefs
(C) Health beliefs
(D) All of the above

55. Which is Fat soluble vitamin?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin A and B
(D) Vitamin K

56. Reconstructive surgery for cleft lip is called :
(A) Rhinoplasty
(B) Palatoplasty
(C) Tenoplasty
(D) Cheiloplasty

57. Phantom pain occurs in :
(A) Heart
(B) Amputated part
(C) Stomach
(D) None of the above

58. A violent typical storm in which strong winds move in a circle :
(A) Cyclone 
(B) Tsunami
(C) Land slide
(D) Flood

59. Which of the following group is the most affected by Rubella infection?
(A) Unborn girl 
(B) Young girl
(C) Adolescent girl
(D) Female aged 20–25 yrs.

60. Position used for giving oral care is :
(A) Prone
(B) Lithotomy
(C) Semi fowler 
(D) None of the above

61. A superficial injury involving only the outer layer of the skin is:
(A) Abrasion 
(B) Lacerated wound
(C) Bruise
(D) Incised wound

62. Clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis include, except :
(A) Corpulmonale
(B) Bronchiectasis
(C) Malabsorbtion
(D) Hypertension

63. Gastric irrigation is also known as:
(A) Stomach wash
(B) Gastric feeding
(C) Gastric intubation
(D) None of the above

64. World Health Day is celebrated on :
(A) 7th May
(B) 8th April
(C) 7th June
(D) 7th April

65. Hospital acquired infection is known as :
(A) Droplet infection
(B) Nosocomal infection
(C) Opportunistic infection
(D) Contamination

66. Backflow of partly digested food into the mouth from the stomach :
(A) Vomiting
(B) Regurgitation
(C) Nausea
(D) Dyspepsia

67. A branch of medicine that specialises in the health of Adolescents :
(A) Neonatology
(B) Geriatrics
(C) Paediatrics
(D) Ephebiatrics

68. Pulse oximetry is :
(A) Non-invasive 
(B) Invasive
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

69. Indication for chest drainage is :
(A) Tibial Fracture
(B) Pneumothorax
(C) Abdomen Trauma
(D) None of the above

70. A severe body response to allergic substance or Protein :
(A) Heart attack
(B) Nervous shock
(C) Anaphylactic shock 
(D) Burns

71. Tubercle bacilli as a causative agent for Tuberculosis was discovered in :
(A) 1810
(B) 1906
(C) 1882 
(D) 1924

72. Prevalence of Tuberculosis disease refers to :
(A) The number of new cases that develop in a given period of time
(B) The number of cases that are present in a particular population at a given time
(C) Percentage of deaths among the diseased
(D) Percentage of individuals who show a positive reaction to the standard tuberculin

73. CBNAAT test detects :
(A) Atypical Mycobacteria
(B) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
(C) Antibodies to Tubercle bacilli
(D) Resistance to all first line Anti TB drugs

74. The most common symptom in Pulmonary T.B. is :
(A) Chest Pain
(B) Haemoptysis (blood from respiratory tract)
(C) Fever
(D) Cough

75. Mantoux test detects :
(A) Acid fast bacilli
(B) Infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
(C) Tuberculous disease
(D) Non acid fast bacilli

76. ADA is a lymphocytic enzyme that is :
(A) Increased in Tuberculous pleural effusion
(B) Decreased in Tuberculous pleural effusion
(C) Markedly increased in malignant effusion
(D) Related to viral pneumonias

77. BCG is usually given in :
(A) Right arm 
(B) Left arm
(C) Left Thigh
(D) Right Thigh

78. X-Ray was discovered by :
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Roentgen
(C) Laenaac
(D) Alexander Flemming

79. Tuberculous cervical lymph gland shows :
(A) Multiplicity
(B) Matting
(C) Caseation pathologically
(D) All of the above

80. The anti TB drug which should be avoided in pregnancy is :
(A) Pyrazinamide
(B) Streptomycin
(D) Ethambutol

81. Question deleted

82. The anti TB drug which causes Optic neuritis and decreased vision is :
(A) Kanamycin
(B) Pyrazinamide
(C) Ethambutol 
(D) Rifampicin

83. Sputum Examination is mandatory to rule out TB in all patients with cough of more than :
(A) One week
(B) Two weeks
(C) Three weeks
(D) Four weeks

84. RNTCP was first implemented in Kerala in :
(A) Thiruvananthapuram
(B) Kottayam
(C) Wayanaad
(D) Pathanamthitta

85. MDR Tuberculosis is resistance to :
(A) Steptomycin and INH
(B) Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide
(C) Rifampicin and INH 
(D) Kanamycin and Rifampicin

86. Pott’s disease involves :
(A) Brain
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Liver
(D) Hip

87. In Ziehl-Neelsen staining of sputum for AFB, 2++ is graded if there are :
(A) 1–9 AFB per 100 oil immersion fields
(B) 1–10 AFB per oil immersion field
(C) 10–99 AFB per 100 oil immersion fields
(D) More than 10 AFB per oil immersion field

88. Duration of treatment for TB under RNTCP for New case is for :
(A) 8 months
(B) One year
(C) 6 months 
(D) 9 months

89. Discarded Medicines are:
(A) Autoclaved and disposed
(B) Chemical Treatment and discharge into drain for liquids and secured land fill for
(C) Microwaving followed by Mutilation and shredding
(D) Incinerated/Destroyed and disposed in secured Landfills

90. Ideal method for preventing hospital acquired infections is :
(A) Cough Etiquette
(B) Proper disinfection
(C) Hand Hygeine
(D) Good sterilization techniques

91. Defaulter retreival during continuation phase of TB treatment under RNTCP is within :
(A) Two weeks
(B) Ten days
(C) Three days
(D) Seven days

92. NIKSHAY is a web based TB Notification system that provides a platform for notification
from :
(A) Both Public and Private sectors 
(B) Private sector only
(C) Public sector only
(D) None of the above

93. XDR–TB is MDR TB with resistance to :
(A) All anti TB drugs
(B) All anti TB drugs except INH and Ethambutol
(C) A fluoroquinolone and second line injectable drug
(D) All first line drugs

94. The number of sputum samples examined for AFB in the diagnosis of Pulmonary TB under
RNTCP is :
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) None of the above

95. In Miliary TB the lesion is in the :
(A) Liver
(B) Brain
(C) Lungs 
(D) Kidneys

96. Most important risk factor for Lung cancer is :
(A) Alcoholism
(C) Exposure to asbestos
(D) Smoking

97. The only absolute contraindication to BCG is in a child with :
(A) Asymptomatic HIV infected children
(B) Symptomatic HIV infection or AIDS
(C) Eczema and infective dermatitis
(D) Previous history of Poliomyelitis

98. DOTS 99 is :
(A) Ensuring 99% cure rate of Tuberculosis
(B) Monitoring TB medication using augmented packaging and low cost mobile phones
(C) Screening of atleast 99% of population for TB
(D) None of the above

99. All the following are advantages of Fluoresence microscopy except :
(A) Increase the sensitivity of smear microscopy
(B) Allow a much larger area of the smear to be seen
(C) Easier counting of bacilli
(D) Does not require power supply

100. Psychosis and suicidal tendencies may be caused by :
(A) Capreomycin
(B) Ethionamide
(C) Levofloxacin
(D) Cycloserine 

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