Tahsildar/ Senior Superintendent Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Code: 070/2022 (A)

Medium of Question- English & Malayalam

Name of Post: Tahsildar/ Senior Superintendent (SR from SC/ST & ST only)

Department: Land Revenue

Cat. No: 566/2021

Date of Test: 18.06.2022

1. Which among the following is/are not correct regarding Hortus Malabaricus?
    1. Itti Achuthan, Ranga Bhat, Appu Bhat and Vinayaka Bhat associated with the project of compiling the text.
    2. The work was published from Lisbon.
    3. The book deals with the recipe of Malabar food items.
    4. The work was compiled under the patronage of Admiral Van Rheede.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All of the Above (1, 2, 3 and 4)

2. Which of the following is / are not associated with Vaikunda Swami?
    1. The Sri Vaikunda Swamy cult took shape among the Shanars of South Travancore during the 1830s.
    2. Vaikunda Swamy was kept as a prisoner at Ceylon by Dharmaraja.
    3. He established simple hut-like structure known as Nilal Tankals in seven places.
    4. Tuvaial Panthi was introduced first at Vagaipathi near Kanyakumari.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) None of the above

3. Which of the following is/ are true regarding colonial education?
    1. Only a small and slowly expanding minority obtained colonial education.
    2. Colonial education was received not through English but was transmitted through the vernacular languages.
    3. The most successful of the English-educated chose English language as medium for creative expression over their particular vernacular.
    4. English became medium only in the high school education and in colleges.
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1, 3 and 4

4. Which among the following is / are false regarding the Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930–31?
    1. On 6 April 1930, by picking up a handful of salt Gandhiji inaugurated the Civil Disobedience Movement.
    2. Khudai Khidmatgars played an extremely active role in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
    3. The Government demonstrated benevolent façade and acted sympathetically to the demonstrations to avoid repression.
    4. Women, students and youth played the most prominent part in the boycott of foreign cloth and liquor.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 3

5. Which among the following is / are false regarding the Three Estates in Pre-revolutionary France?
    1. First Estate represented the nobility of France.
    2. The Second Estate comprised the Catholic clergymen spread across France.
    3. The Third Estate represented the vast majority of Louis XVI’s subjects.
    4. The members of the Third Estate saw nothing in the First and second except social snobbery, undeserved privileges and economic oppression.
(A) Only 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are false
(C) Only 3 and 4 are False
(D) Only 4 is false

6. Which among the following is / are true regarding Kathakali?
    1. The initial evolution of Kathakali into a dance-drama depended on close artistic collaboration between royal patrons and their Nayar soldiers-turned-performers
    2. The first kathakali royal patrons were also authors of the first plays.
    3. The predominant ‘green’ colour of the make-up reflects the character’s demonic nature.
    4. Bhashanaishadham Champu is the first written Kathakali Text.
(A) Only 2 is true
(B) Only 1 and 2 are true
(C) Only 2 and 3 are true
(D) Only 2 and 4 are true

7. Which among the following was not an event participated by Jesse Owens in 1936 Summer Olympics held at Berlin?
(A) 100 meter dash
(B) High Jump
(C) 200 Meter race
(D) Long Jump

8. Which among the following is/are not correct match?
    1. Madhavikkutty – Chandanamarangal
    2. O.V. Vijayan – Vargasamaram Swatwam
    3. V.T. Bhattathirippad – Aphante Makal
    4. Vijayalakshmi – Swayamvaram
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 3 and 4

9. Which among the following Cultural Institutions is/are not situated in Thiruvananthapuram?
    1. Kerala Bhasha Institute.
    2. Centre for Heritage Studies.
    3. The Kerala State Jawahar Balabhavan.
    4. Kumaran Asan National Institute of Culture.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 4

10. Who was the former U.S. Secretary of State to suggest that Ukraine should be a bridge between Russia and NATO holding a neutral status, without joining the latter?
(A) Condoleezza Rice
(B) Hillary Rodham Clinton
(C) Henry A. Kissinger
(D) None of these

11. What will be the time in India (88 1/2° East) when it is 7 am at Greenwich?
(A) 1:30 am
(B) 11:30 am
(C) 12:00 pm
(D) 12:30 pm

12. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the earthquake waves?
 (i) P-waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous materials.
 (ii) S-waves can travel through solid and liquid materials.
 (iii) The surface waves are the first to report on seismograph.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)

13. Which one of the following statements about Indian rivers is not true?
(A) The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus.
(B) The Godavari is the largest peninsular river in India.
(C) The Krishna rises in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats.
(D) The Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat

14. Kudremukh deposits of Karnataka are known for which one of the following minerals?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron ore
(C) Manganese
(D) Bauxite

15. Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute is situated at which one of the following places in Kerala?
(A) Mannuthy
(B) Vazhuthacaud
(C) Thenmala
(D) Palode

16. What is the theme of World Wildlife Day 2022 observed recently on 3rd March?
(A) Sustaining all life on Earth
(B) Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet
(C) Recovering Key Species for Ecosystem Restoration
(D) Forest Restoration: A path to Recovery and Well-being

17. Which model of GST has been chosen by India?
(A) UK
(B) China
(C) Canada

18. In which five year plan India opted for a mixed economy?
(A) 1st
(B) 2nd
(C) 3rd
(D) 4th

19. Which of the following statement is not the one of the 3 basic elements in the method of Green Revolution?
 (i) Continued expansion of farming
 (ii) Double-cropping existing farmland
 (iii) Using seeds with improved genetics
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) None of the above

20. Which of the following was the first paper currency issued by RBI?
(A) Rs. 100 note
(B) Rs. 5 note
(C) Rs. 2 note
(D) Rs. 1 note

21. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :

(A) a-3
(B) b-4
(C) c-2
(D) d-1

22. As per the economic survey 2021-22 what is the estimated GDP growth of India in 2022-23?
(A) 10.0 – 10.5%
(B) 9.2 – 9.7%
(C) 8.2 – 8.7%
(D) 8.0 – 8.5%

23. Which of the following articles that Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described as the Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 32
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 25

24. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of power between the Centre and the States?
(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 7th
(D) 6th

25. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Fundamental Rights?
 (i) Some Fundamental Rights apply to Indian citizens alone
 (ii) All Fundamental Rights apply to both Indian Citizens and foreigners equally
(A) Only (ii)
(B) Only (i)
(C) Only (i) and (ii)
(D) None of the above

26. A judicial order calling upon the person who has detained another to produce the latter before the Court to let the Court know on what ground he has been confined and to set him free if there is no legal justification for the imprisonment is :
(A) Mandamus
(B) Prohibition
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus

27. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the vacancy in the office of the President of India?
(i) On the expiry of his term of five years.
(ii) By his death.
(iii) By his resignation.
(iv) On his removal by impeachment.
(v) Otherwise. e.g.. on the setting aside of his elections as President.
(A) All of the above (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i)
(D) Only (v)

28. Who has the constitutional authority to scrutinize the country’s entire financial system, both at the level of the Union and the States?
(A) The Attorney-General of India
(B) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Secretary

29. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(i) The Speaker exercises casting vote in the case of equality of votes.
(ii) The Speaker has the final power to maintain order within the House.
(iii) The Speaker presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
(iv) The decision of the Speaker as to whether a Bill is Money Bill is final.
(A) Only (iv) and (i)
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) All of the above
(D) Only (i) and (ii)

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the termination of the Governor of a State before his due term?
(i) Dismissal by the President.
(ii) Resignation
(iii) Impeachment
(iv) Court Order
(A) All of the above
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (i) and (ii)

31. Kerala Land Reform Act passed by Kerala Legislative Assembly on:
(A) 1970
(B) 1971
(C) 1969
(D) 1957

32. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Kerala State Planning Board?
(i) It formulates Five-Year and Annual Plans
(ii) It prepares the annual Economic Review
(iii) It implements Plans
(iv) It monitors Plan implementation
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) All of the above
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority?
(i) Kerala State Disaster Management Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
(ii) Kerala State Disaster Management Authority is a statutory non-autonomous body chaired by the Chief Minister of Kerala.
(iii) The authority comprises ten members.
(iv) The Chief Secretary is the Chief Executive Officer of the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority
(A) All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (i) and (iv)

34. The proposed Industrial Corridor project in Kerala is connecting between which cities in India :
(A) Kochi-Hyderabad
(B) Kochi-Bangalore
(C) Kochi-Chennai
(D) Kochi-Mumbai

35. The scheme implemented by the Kerala Social Security Mission(KSSM) to address the problem of the unwed mother is known as :
(A) Nirbhaya programme
(B) One-Stop Centre
(C) Snehasparsam
(D) None of the above

36. Who is the Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?
(A) Dr Aravind Subramaniam
(B) Dr. Ranga Rajan
(C) Dr Aravid Veeramani
(D) Dr. Rajiv Kumar

37. Which of the following North-Eastern States recently inaugurated a dedicated Technology Park for IT Sector?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Mizzoram

38. Identify the disease/disorder not related to Kidney :
(i) Renal calculi
(ii) Gout
(iii) Glomerulonephritis
(iv) Myasthenia gravis
(A) only (ii) and (iii)
(B) only (ii) and (iv)
(C) only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) only (i), (ii) and (iv)

39. A patient complaints a doctor for having pain in joints, bleeding gums and general weakness. The doctor advises him to take or consume oranges or lemon regularly. The patient is
suffering from :
(A) Scurvy
(B) Rickets
(C) Arthritis
(D) Deficiency of Iron

40. Which one of the following is/are sick-effects of use of anabolic steroids in females?
(i) Abnormal menstrual cycle
(ii) Increased aggressiveness
(iii) Excessive hair growth on face and body
(iv) Uterine cancer
(A) only (i) and (ii)
(B) only (ii) and (iv)
(C) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) all the above

41. Cancer is NOT caused due to :
(A) X-rays and gamma rays
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Nicotine
(D) Oncogenic viruses

42. Identify the disease that do not belong to the group :
(A) Typhoid
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Ringworm
(D) Cancer

43. Sound waves can’t be polarized, because they are :
(A) Transverse wave
(B) Matter wave
(C) Longitudinal wave
(D) None of these

44. The recoil of gun after firing a bullet is due to :
(A) Newton’s third law of motion
(B) Conservation of angular momentum
(C) Newton’s first law of motion
(D) Conservation of energy

45. The amount of work done to lift a body of mass 3 kg to a height of 10 m, above the ground is ________ ( g = 9.8 m / s² ).
(A) 294 J
(B) 196 J
(C) 490 J
(D) 200 J

46. India’s first Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV), which is completely powered by Hydrogen is?
(A) Tata Tiger EV
(B) Mercedes-Benz
(C) Tata Nexon EV
(D) Toyota Mirai

47. The value of Boyle Temperature for an ideal gas :
(A) a/R
(B) a/bR
(C) 2a/bR
(D) 2a/R

48. Metal which does not form amalgam :
(A) Iron
(B) Gold
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper

49. Nicotine is a :
(A) Tropane Alkaloid
(B) Phenanthre Alkaloid
(C) Pyridine-Pyrrolidine Alkaloid
(D) Quinoline Isoquinoline Alkaloid

50. Benjamin list and David Macmillan awarded the nobel prizes for the development of :
(A) Genome Editing
(B) Lithium Ion batteries
(C) Asymmetric organo catalysis
(D) Phage display of Peptides and Antibodies

51. Find the wrong term in the series :
 3, 5, 7, 11, 12, 18, 19, 26,
(A) 7
(B) 18
(C) 19
(D) 11

52. Find the odd one :

53. In a certain code BOAT is coded as 2-40-4-30 and PINK is coded as 28-22-32-18. How will the word RUSH coded :
(A) 21-18-38-16
(B) 32-18-34-40
(C) 24-18-32-14
(D) 38-16-36-42

54. Raju travelled 10 km west and turned right and travelled 6 km then turned left and travelled 8 km then turned back and travelled 11 km then turned right and travelled 6 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 7 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 12 km
(D) 13 km

55. P × Q means ‘P is the mother of Q′
P + Q means ‘P is the brother of Q′
P – Q means ‘P is the sister of Q′
P ÷ Q means ‘P is the father of Q′
Which of the following shows ‘A is the maternal uncle of B’?
(A) A ÷ C × D + B
(B) A × E ÷ D + B
(C) A + E ÷ B – C
(D) A + C × D – B

56. How many 4 digit even numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if no digit is repeated?
(A) 24
(B) 42
(C) 36
(D) 48

57. A boys walks to cover certain distance. If he walked 2 km/hr faster he would have taken 1 hour less. If he had moved 1 km/hr slower he would have taken 1 hour more. The distance travelled is :
(A) 12 km
(B) 10 km
(C) 14 km
(D) 8 km

58. A, B, C can together complete the work in 12 days. If A is thrice faster than B, and B is twice faster than C, B alone can do the work in :
(A) 24 days
(B) 48 days
(C) 54 days
(D) 42 days

59. In what ratio must oil worth Rs. 80/kg is mixed with oil worth Rs. 85/kg and selling the mixture at Rs. 98.25/kg, there can be a profit of 20%?
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 5 : 3
(C) 5 : 4
(D) 3 : 2

60. The cost of painting four walls of a room is Rs. 750. If another room with length and breadth is twice and height is thrice that of this room, the cost of painting the walls is :
(A) Rs. 2,250
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 4,500
(D) Rs. 6,750

61. Give the synonym of fugacious:
(A) Ephemeral
(B) Permanent
(C) Admirable
(D) Enthralling

62. Choose the correct option :
 Covid-19 ———————— in the relief camps.
(A) breaks away
(B) breaks down
(C) breaks into
(D) breaks out

63. Choose the correct indirect speech form of the sentence :
 ‘Have you understood this topic?’ the teacher asked the students.
(A) The teacher asked the students whether they have understood that topic
(B) The teacher asked the students whether they had understood that topic
(C) The teacher questioned the students whether they understood that topic
(D) The teacher asked the students whether they have had understood that topic

64. Choose the correct passive form of the sentence :
 People will laugh at you if you wear these green pants for the party :
(A) You would be laughed at if these green pants were worn for the party
(B) You would be laughed at if these pants had been worn for the party
(C) You will be laughed at if these green pants are worn for the party
(D) You will be laughed at if these green pants would be worn for the party

65. Choose the preposition :
 Government has bestowed ________ various privileges to the ethnic group.
(A) In
(B) To
(C) Of
(D) Upon

66. Give the correct verb form :
 Until he _________ (join) the office, he _________ (not go) outside his city.
(A) joined, has not gone
(B) had joined, had not gone
(C) has joined, had not gone
(D) joined, had not gone

67. Consider the following phrases :
(i) annus mirabilis – an auspicious year
(ii) pro tempore – as appears in the record
(iii) caveat – for the sake of argument
(iv) tour de force – a thing accomplished with great skill
Which of the phrases and meanings given above are correct?
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

68. Identify the correct spelling :
(A) Acqiuesce
(B) Acquiesce
(C) Acqueisce
(D) Acquesce

69. Choose the correct article :
 ________ MLA donated one lakh rupees from ________ MLA fund.
(A) A, a
(B) The, a
(C) A, the
(D) An, the

70. She is astonished to see people of diverse backgrounds live ———— in the village.
(A) Forty winks
(B) Cheek by jowl
(C) Pushing up daisies
(D) Fifth wheel

71. തെറ്റില്ലാത്ത പദങ്ങളുടെ കൂട്ടമേത്‌?
1. സാമ്യത, സായൂജ്യം, നിശബ്‌ദത
2. ഹാർദ്ദവം, സൂക്ഷ്മം, സാന്തനം
3. സമ്രാട്ട്, സായൂജ്യം, സാമ്യം
4. മാന്ദ്യത, പുശ്ചം, പീഢ
(A) 1മാത്രം
(B) 1, 2 എന്നിവ
(C) 3 മാത്രം
(D) 1, 4 എന്നിവ

72. ലോകത്തെ മുഴുവൻ കണ്ണീരിലാഴ്ത്തിക്കൊണ്ട്‌ എൺപതുകൊല്ലം നീണ്ടുനിന്ന ആ ജീവിതം സമാപിച്ചു. ഈ വാക്യം ശരിയായി തിരുത്തിയെഴുതുമ്പോൾ :
1. എൺപതുകൊല്ലം നീണ്ടുനിന്ന ആ ജീവിതം ലോകത്തെ മുഴുവൻ കണ്ണീരിലാഴ്ത്തിക്കൊണ്ടു സമാപിച്ചു
2. മുഴുവൻ ലോകത്തെയും എൺപതുകൊല്ലം കണ്ണീരിലാഴ്ത്തി നീണ്ടുനിന്ന ആ ജീവിതം സമാപിച്ചു
3. ലോകത്തെ മുഴുവൻ കണ്ണീരിലാഴ്ത്തിക്കൊണ്ട്‌, എൺപതുകൊല്ലം നീണ്ടുനിന്ന ആ ജീവിതം സമാപിച്ചു
4. എൺപതുകൊല്ലം ലോകത്തെ മുഴുവൻ കണ്ണീരിലാഴ്ത്തിയ ആ ജീവിതം സമാപിച്ചു.
മേൽപ്പറഞ്ഞ വാക്യങ്ങളിൽ തെറ്റില്ലാത്ത വാക്യങ്ങൾ ഏതെല്ലാം?
(A) 1, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) 2 മാത്രം
(C) 2, 4 എന്നിവ
(D) 4 മാത്രം

73. ചില മലയാളപദങ്ങളും അവയുടെ പര്യായങ്ങളും താഴെ നൽകുന്നു. ശരിയായവ ഏതെല്ലാം?
1. വാതിൽ - തളിമം, പര്യങ്കം
2. കുങ്കുമം - രോഹിതം, പിശുനം
3. കുട - ഛത്രം, ആതപത്രം
4. കപ്പൽ - ഉരു, യാനപാത്രം
(A) 1, 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) 2, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(C) 1, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(D)1, 2, 4 എന്നിവ

74. ഒറ്റപ്പദമാക്കിയതിൽ ശരിയല്ലാത്തത്‌ ഏതെല്ലാം?
1. ബുദ്ധനെ സംബന്ധിച്ച്‌ - ബൗദ്ധം
2. ശിഥിലമായത്‌ - ശൈഥില്യം
3. തിലത്തിൽ നിന്നുള്ളത്‌ - തൈലം
4. വരത്തെ ദാനം ചെയ്യുന്നവൾ - വരദ
(A) 1, 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) എല്ലാം ശരിയാണ്‌
(C) 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(D)1, 3, 4 എന്നിവ

75. താഴെയുള്ള പരിഭാഷയിൽ തെറ്റായിട്ടുള്ളത്‌ :
1. Put off - ധരിയ്ക്കുക
2. Call upon - ക്ഷണിയ്ക്കുക
3. Come out against - പരസ്യമായി എതിർക്കുക
4. Get along with - മറ്റൊരാളുമായി നല്ല ബന്ധത്തിലായിരിക്കുക
(A) 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(C) എല്ലാം
(D)1 മാത്രം

76. താഴെ പറയുന്ന പട്ടികയിൽ ശരിയായ വിപരീതപദങ്ങളുടെ ജോഡികൾ ഏതെല്ലാം?
1. ഋതം - ഭംഗുരം
2. ത്യാജ്യം - ഗ്രാഹ്യം
3. താപം - തോഷം
4. വിവൃതം - സംവൃതം
(A) 1, 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) 1, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(C) 2, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(D)1, 2, 4 എന്നിവ

77. താഴെ പറയുന്ന ശൈലികളിൽ അർത്ഥവുമായി യോജിക്കുന്നവ ഏതെല്ലാം?
1. മർക്കടമുഷ്ടി - ശാഠ്യം
2. നളപാകം - ഒരു കുറവുമില്ലാത്തത്‌
3. കാപ്പുകെട്ടുക - ഒരുങ്ങുക
4. ധനാശി പാടുക - അവസാനിപ്പിക്കുക
(A) 1, 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(B) 2, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(C) 1, 3, 4 എന്നിവ
(D)എല്ലാം യോജിക്കുന്നവയാണ്‌

78. സ്വാമികൾ എന്നത്‌ പൂജകബഹുവചനമാണെങ്കിൽ താഴെ കൊടുത്തവയിൽ ഏതെല്ലാമാണ്‌ യോജിക്കുന്നത്‌?
1. ഒന്നിലേറെ ആളുകളെ കാണിയ്ക്കുന്നു
2. ബഹുത്വത്തെ കാണിയ്ക്കുന്നില്ല
3. പൂജകത്വം സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്ന ഏകവചനമാണ്‌
4. ബഹുവചനമാണ്‌
(A) 1, 4 എന്നിവ
(B) 2, 3 എന്നിവ
(C) 1മാത്രം
(D)2 മാത്രം

79. മഹത്‌ + ചരിതം ചേർത്തെഴുതുമ്പോൾ ശരിയായി വരുന്ന രൂപമേത്‌?
1. മഹശ്ചരിതം
2. മഹച്ഛരിതം
3. മഹച്ചരിതം
4. മഹാചരിതം
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3

80. ചേർത്തെഴുതുമ്പോൾ കൂട്ടത്തിൽ വ്യത്യസ്തമായി വരുന്നത്‌ :
1. പന + ഓല
2. അരി + അട
3. തിരു + ഓണം
4. കരി + പുലി
(A) 4 മാത്രം
(B)1, 2 എന്നിവ
(C) 1 മാത്രം
(D)1, 3 എന്നിവ

81. Which of the following is/are Government land?
 (i) Escheats
 (ii) Land included in Thandapper Account
 (iii) Bought in Land
 (iv) Tharissu
(A) All of the above (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

82. Which of the following is/are correct according to transfer of property, registration and transfer of registry?
 (i) Unregistered Will cannot effect mutation
 (ii) Registration cannot be refused on the basis of under stamped
 (iii) Transfer of registry by succession in case of disappearance of land owner is done after 7 years
(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) All of the above

83. According to Land Conservancy Amendment Act 2009, an officer entrusted with responsibility of reporting unlawful occupation of government land fails to report or initiate action against him shall be punishable. What is the punishment?
(A) Imprisonment for a term of three to five year and fine of fifty thousand rupees to two lakhs rupees
(B) Imprisonment for a term of two to five year and fine of twenty five thousand rupees to one lakhs rupees
(C) Imprisonment for a term of five to seven year and fine of fifty thousand rupees to two lakh rupees
(D) Imprisonment for a term of five to seven year and fine of twenty five thousand rupees to one lakh rupees

84. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Land tax?
 (i) New Land tax rate come in force on 31-03-2022
 (ii) Assessment of Basic tax done by Village Officer
 (iii) The public revenue due on any land shall be the first charge on that land
(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All of the above

85. Which of the following are included in the Right to Fair Compensation and ‘Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Kerala) Rules 2015 :
 (i) Solatium is 100%
 (ii) For computing award, multiplication factor in rural area is 1
 (iii) Unit for assessing social impact study
(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) All of the above

86. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Land assignment?
 (i) Assignment in panchayath area, first preference for persons do not own or hold any land with prescribed low income
 (ii) List of assignable land to be prepared by Village Officer
 (iii) Transfer of government land by way of lease is also an assignment
 (iv) Regularisation of occupation of forest lands prior to 1-1-1977 is also an assignment
(A) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) All of the above

87. Kerala Land Reform Act is widely appreciated. Consider the following statement :
(i) Jenmikaram abolished
(ii) Ceiling Area fixed
(iii) Formation of Land Tribunal
 Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) None of these
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) All of these

88. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to arrest by Magistrate?
(A) An Executive Magistrate cannot arrest a person if a non-cognizable offence is committed in his presence
(B) A Judicial Magistrate can arrest a person at any time against whom he is competent to issue warrant
(C) A Judicial Magistrate cannot order any other person to arrest an offender who committed a cognizable offence in his presence
(D) All the above

89. Which of the following is NOT an ‘objectionable article’ under Section 94 of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(A) False seals
(B) Forged documents
(C) Counterfeit stamps
(D) None of the above

90. An assembly of 15 persons is likely to cause disturbance of the public peace. Which of the following act cannot be done by an officer in charge of a Police Station if the members do not disperse even after a command to disperse?
(A) Arrest and confine the persons who form part of it
(B) Requiring the assistance of any male person who is not an officer or member of the armed forces
(C) Causing the assembly to be dispersed by the armed forces
(D) None of the above

91. A tree in the compound of Mr. X is likely to fall on the public road. Which of the following has the power to make a conditional order to Mr. X to remove or support the tree?
(A) Officer in charge of a police station
(B) Sub-divisional Magistrate
(C) Circle Inspector of Police
(D) All the above

92. From which of the following category of persons can an Executive Magistrate require to show cause why he should not be ordered to execute a bond, with or without sureties, for his good behaviour?
(A) A person who intentionally disseminates an article against a particular religion to create ill will between different religions
(B) A person who is by habit a thief
(C) A person who habitually commits the offence of mischief
(D) All the above

93. In which of the following situation, is the dead body forwarded to the nearest Civil Surgeon for examination?
(A) When the case involves suicide by a woman within seven years of her marriage
(B) When a person is killed by an animal
(C) When a person’s death is caused by machinery
(D) All the above

94. The maximum period for which a Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused person otherwise than in police custody beyond fifteen days, when the investigation relates to an offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years, is :
(A) Ninety days
(B) Seventy days
(C) Unlimited
(D) None of the above

95. Which of the following statements are correct?
 (i) Ramsar Convention was held in Iran during 1971
(ii) World Wet Land Day is celebrated on 2nd February every year in connection with the Ramsar Convention
(iii) The largest Ramsar Convention site in Kerala is Ashtamudi Lake
(iv) The smallest RamsarWet Land site in India is Renuka wetland.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

96. The first CRZ notification was issued under ———————— Act in the year —————
(A) Forest Consideration Act, 1980 and 1991
(B) Environmental Protection Act, 1986 and 1991
(C) Disaster Management Act, 2005 and 2011
(D) Kerala Forests (Vesting and Management of Ecologically Fragile Lands) Act,

97. Land Acquisition and Land conservancy are dealt under the following doctrines respectively :
(A) Doctrine of Eminent Domain and Doctrine of Public Trust
(B) Doctrine of Public Trust and Doctrine of Eminent Domain
(C) Doctrine of Waiver and Doctrine of Public Trust
(D) Doctrine of Eminent Domain and Doctrine of Estoppel

98. As per the Kerala State Disaster Management Plan 2016, the order severity of disasters in ascending order of extent of susceptible area is ————————
(A) Land slide > Flood > Drought
(B) Flood < Drought < Land slide
(C) Drought > Land slide > Flood
(D) Drought < Land slide < Flood

99. By Section 135 A of the Representation of the people Act 1951 ————— is an offence and is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than One year, but which may extend to three years and with fine.
(A) Canvasing near polling station
(B) Misconduct at the polling station
(C) Removal of Ballot paper from polling station
(D) Booth Capturing

100. The Election Commission of India may nominate —————— who shall be an officer of Government to watch the conduct of Election or elections in a constituency or a group of constituencies.
(A) Returning Officer
(B) Electoral Registration Officer
(C) Observer
(D) District Election Officer

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