Assistant Engineer Question Paper and Answer Key


Question Code: 073/2022 

Name of Post: Assistant Engineer 

Department: Kerala State Pollution Control Board

 Cat. No: 124/2021

 Date of Test: 28.06.2022


Fifth  answer changed option (A) to (B)


11. A simply supported beam I carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam  II carries the same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of maximum deflections for I and II will be
 (A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 8/5
(D) 2/5

12. A body is said to be in equilibrium if,
 (A) No force acts on it.
 (B) Resultant of all the forces acting on it is zero.
 (C) Algebraic sum of all the forces in the X direction, Y direction and moment of all the forces about any point is equal to zero.
 (D) All the above.
Question deleted

13. For the principal axes of a section
 (A) Sum of moment of inertia is zero.
 (B) Difference of moment of inertia is zero.
 (C) Product of inertia is zero.
 (D) None of these.

14. The maximum compressive strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre in bending is
 (A) 0.002
 (B) 0.0035
 (C) 0.67
 (D) 0.42

15. According to IS 456-2000 the modulus of elasticity of concrete is
 (A) directly proportional to compressive strength
 (B) inversely proportional to compressive strength
 (C) directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
 (D) inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength

16. For a simply supported beam of span 8 m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be
 (A) 400 mm
 (B) 310 mm
 (C) 450 mm
 (D) 600 mm

17. Out of the following, select the most suitable type of bolt that can be used, when the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses.
 (A) Ordinary unfinished bolt
 (B) Flange bolt
 (C) Turned and fitted bolt
 (D) High strength bolt

18. Horizontal stiffener is provided in a plate girder to safe guard against
 (A) Shear buckling of web plate
 (B) Compression buckling of web plate
 (C) Yielding
 (D) All of the above

19. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
 (A) To impart plasticity
 (B) To make the brick durable
 (C) To prevent shrinkage
 (D) To make the brick impermeable

20. Le-Chateliers equipment is used for determining the
 (A) Setting time of cement
 (B) Soundness of cement
 (C) Tensile strength of cement
 (D) Compressive strength of cement

21. A crack is formed in a RCC beam, when the material exceeds
 (A) modulus of elasticity
 (B) compressive stress
 (C) modulus of rupture
 (D) None of the above

22. The type of pile recommended in places where the soil is soft and that reduces the risk of liquefaction
 (A) Friction pile
 (B) Pedestal pile
 (C) Pressure pile
 (D) Vibro pile

23. Which one of the following represents an event ?
 (A) Fixing of door
 (B) Concrete cured
 (C) Selecting sites
 (D) Plastering of walls

24. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities is known as
 (A) Total float
 (B) Interfloating float
 (C) Free float
 (D) Independent float

25. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
 (A) No deduction is made for the volume occupied for reinforcement.
 (B) No deduction is made for the openings up to 0.1 sq.m.
 (C) No deduction is made for the volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 in cross-section.
 (D) None of the above.

26. Consistency of cohesive soils is related to its
 (A) Density (
 (B) Moisture content
 (C) Shear strength
 (D) Porosity

27. Sheep foot rollers are best suited for compacting which type of soil ?
 (A) Granular soils
 (B) Cohesive soils
 (C) Hard rock
 (D) Any type of soil

28. In Mohr’s circle, a point located above Mohr’s envelope shows
 (A) Imaginary condition
 (B) Safe condition
 (C) Imminent failure condition
 (D) Condition of maximum obliquity

29. A wall is acted upon by a pressure due to water on one of its sides. If w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of liquid, total pressure on the wall per unit length is
 (A) wH
 (B) wH² /2
 (C) wH² 2
 (D) wH²/3

30. The use of a surge tank is
 (A) to control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe line flow.
 (B) to eliminate water hammer possibilities.
 (C) to regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary retarding head of water
 (D) All of the above

31. A standard Cipoletti weir is ______ in shape.
 (A) Rectangular
 (B) Triangular
 (C) Trapezoidal
 (D) Circular

32. For highway capacity design, what are the studies needed ?
 (A) Origin and destination studies
 (B) Parking and accident studies
 (C) Speed and volume studies
 (D) Accident studies

33. In concrete pavements, tie bars are used in which joints ?
 (A) Expansion joints
 (B) Contraction joints
 (C) Warping joints
 (D) Longitudinal joints

34. Mention the test done to find the extent of weathering of aggregates in a lab.
 (A) Soundness test
 (B) Crushing test
 (C) Impact test
 (D) Abrasion test

35. The central location of bubble in a levelling instrument means the axis of the bubble tube is parallel to
 (A) Line of sight
 (B) Line of collimation
 (C) Axis of the telescope
 (D) None of these

36. Which method is used to locate the position of a station with reference to three known points ?
 (A) Intersection method
 (B) Radiation method
 (C) Resection method
 (D) Three-point problem

37. Solution of Three point problems can be obtained by
 (A) mechanical method
 (B) graphical method
 (C) trial and error method
 (D) All of the above

38. Infiltration capacity depends upon
 (A) rainfall intensity
 (B) initial moisture condition of soil
 (C) soil characteristics and ground slope
 (D) All the above.

39. The rim of a standard rain gauge is ___ above ground level.
 (A) 10 cm
 (B) 20 cm
 (C) 30 cm
 (D) 50 cm

40. The ratio of the volume of water retained by the formation after it has been drained under gravity to the total volume of formation is known as
 (A) yield
 (B) porosity
 (C) specific yield
 (D) specific retention

41. Coliforms which are the indicator organisms for microbiological pollution are
 (A) Gram +ve bacilli
 (B) Gram – ve bacilli
 (C) Gram +ve cocci
 (D) Gram – ve cocci

42. Kjeldahl Nitrogen is a measure of
 (A) Ammonia & Organic Nitrogen
 (B) Nitrate & Nitrite
 (C) Ammonia & Nitrite
 (D) Nitrate & Organic Nitrogen

43. 30 ml of sample is pipetted directly to 300 ml incubation bottle. The initial DO of the diluted sample is 8 mg/L and final DO is 1 mg/L. The initial DO of the dilution water is 9 mg/L and final DO is 8 mg/L. The temperature of incubation is 20°C for 5 days. What is the 5 day BOD of the sample ?
 (A) 180 mg/L
 (B) 600 mg/L
 (C) 61 mg/L
 (D) 80 mg/L

44. For slow sand filters the effective size of the sand ranges from
 (A) 0.45 mm – 0.55 mm
 (B) 0.5 mm – 0.6 mm
 (C) 0.09 mm – 1.0 mm
 (D) 0.25 mm – 0.35 mm

45. Colloids become destabilized when
 (A) Repulsive force >Van der Waals force
 (B) Van der Waals force > Repulsive force
 (C) Gravitational force > Viscous force
 (D) Viscous Force > Gravitational force
  Question deleted

46. On analysis for coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of coliforms per 100 mL is
 (A) 100
 (B) 66
 (C) 320
 (D) 35

47. Oxidation of nitrites to nitrates is done by
 (A) Nitrobacter
 (B) Nitrosomonas
 (C) Pseudomonas
 (D) Azetobacter

48. Form of chlorine, which can prevent the formation of disinfection by products (DBP) some of which are carcinogens, is
 (A) Bleaching powder
 (B) Chlorine tablets
 (C) Gaseous Chlorine
 (D) Chloramines
Question deleted

49. Determination of chemical elements that compose the solid waste is known as
 (A) Proximate analysis
 (B) Energy analysis
 (C) Ultimate analysis
 (D) Inert value analysis

50. Type 2 settling is also known as
 (A) Discrete settling
 (B) Compressed settling
 (C) Stage settling
 (D) Flocculent settling

51. Maximum runoff will be obtained for a rain having duration equal to
 (A) Time of concentration
 (B) Overland flow time
 (C) Channel flow time
 (D) Gutter flow time

52. A city has a population of 20000 with an area of 1000000 Square metres. The average runoff coefficient is 0.72 and time of concentration 30 minutes. The maximum storm water discharge is
 (A) 1 Cumec
 (B) 10 Cumecs
 (C) 40 Cumecs
 (D) 4 Cumecs

53. Streeter-Phelps equation gives
 (A) Total organic content
 (B) Biochemical oxygen demand
 (C) Dissolved oxygen deficit
 (D) Chemical oxygen demand

54. Dairy wastes are mainly treated by
 (A) Photocatalysis
 (B) Chemical oxidation
 (C) Activated sludge process
 (D) Phytoremediation

55. Major component contributing to total solids in Sulfite waste liquor is
 (A) Calcium
 (B) Sulphur
 (C) Sugar
 (D) Lignin

56. The atmosphere is said to be unstable when
 (A) Environmental lapse rate < Adiabatic lapse rate
 (B) Environmental lapse rate = Adiabatic lapse rate
 (C) Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate
 (D) Environmental lapse rate does not have any relation with Adiabatic lapse rate

57. “Fanning” the spreading of plume horizontally occurs when the lapse rate is
 (A) Negative
 (B) Positive
 (C) Neutral
 (D) Adiabatic

58. Which among the following control device has the maximum particulate removal efficiency ?
 (A) Cyclone separator
 (B) Spray Tower
 (C) Fabric Filter
 (D) Cyclone scrubber

59. The process of heating the solid wastes in an oxygen free atmosphere splitting the organic substances through thermal cracking and condensation is
 (A) Incineration
 (B) Gasification
 (C) Spreader Stoking
 (D) Pyrolysis

60. According to IS 10500:2012, the acceptable limit of turbidity is
 (A) 1 NTU
 (B) 5 NTU
 (C) 10 NTU
 (D) 2 NTU

61. The most common disposal method for nuclear waste is:
 (A) Microbial uptake
 (B) Pyrolysis
 (C) Incineration
 (D) Burial in concrete containers

62. The unit of frequency of sound is:
 (A) Decibel (dB)
 (B) Hertz (Hz)
 (C) m/s
 (D) Lambda

63. Itai-Itai disease is caused by the heavy metal:
 (A) Cadmium
 (B) Mercury
 (C) Chromium
 (D) Lead

64. When the rate of deoxygenation is more than the rate of reaeration,
 (A) DO increases
 (B) DO deficit decreases
 (C) DO deficit increases
 (D) Ultimate BOD increases

65. Which of the following sets out the criteria for an environmental management system and can be certified to ?
 (A) ISO 18001
 (B) ISO 14001
 (C) ISO 9000
 (D) ISO 9001

66. The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:
 (A) reduce greenhouse gas emissions
 (B) reduce ozone depleting substances
 (C) reduce acid rain
 (D) reduce photochemical smog

67. The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to:
(A) reduce greenhouse effect
(B) protect ozone layer
(C) reduce acid rain
(D) reduce photochemical smog

68. What is the unit for Carbon footprint ?
 (A) tonnes of CO2 equivalent
 (B) hectares of land
 (C) mg/litre of air
 (D) no unit

69. According to the environmental clearance process in India, Environmental Impact Assessment is not needed for projects which fall under:
 (A) Category A
 (B) Category B1
 (C) Category B2
 (D) Schedule I

70. Which of the following Acts came into existence in India, to enact the decisions made in the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in June, 1972, in which India participated ?
 (A) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
 (B) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
 (C) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
 (D) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

71. The process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide is called:
 (A) Global warming
 (B) Carbon foot-printing
 (C) Carbon crediting
 (D) Carbon sequestration

72. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been adopted as 2030 Agenda ?
 (A) 5
 (B) 15
 (C) 17
 (D) 20

73. Which of the following is a popular Green building rating system, developed in India ?
 (C) Green Globes

74. The permissible limit of lead (Pb) in drinking water as per IS 10500:2012 is:
 (A) 0.01 mg/l
 (B) 0.05 mg/l
 (C) 0.005 mg/l
 (D) 0.001 mg/l

75. Using of plants to clean up contaminated environments is called:
 (A) Bioremediation
 (B) Phytoremediation
 (C) Nanofiltration
 (D) Root zone filtration

76. Molarity of aqueous solution of acetic acid containing 30 weight percentage acid if density of solution is 1 g/cc is
 (A) 5
 (B) 2.5
 (C) 2
 (D) 0.05

77. Wet leather with moisture content 60% enters a drier and leaves with 10% moisture. If output from the drier is 100 kg/h, amount of water removed in kg/h is
 (A) 225
 (B) 100
 (C) 200
 (D) 125

78. Relative humidity of air can decrease in spite of increase in humidity if
 (A) pressure is increased
 (B) temperature is increased
 (C) temperature is decreased
 (D) cannot happen

79. At low concentration of a gas in a liquid, which of the following laws is most appropriate ?
 (A) Raoult’s law
 (B) Henry’s law
 (C) Dalton’s law
 (D) Amagat’s law

80. Heat required to raise temperature of 1 kg solution, with mean specific heat capacity 3.5 kJ/kgK), from 300 K to 400 K is______
 (A) 700 kJ
 (B) 700 J
 (C) 350 J
 (D) 350 kJ

81. Boiling point of a heterogeneous mixture is
 (A) same as that of high boiling component
 (B) same as that of low boiling component
 (C) less than boiling point of all the components
 (D) more than boiling point of all the components

82. Temperature at which equilibrium vapour pressure of a liquid equals existing partial pressure of vapour in a mixture is the mixture’s
 (A) dew point
 (B) boiling point
 (C) freezing point
 (D) sublimation point

83. Components A and B react to form product C, as per the reaction, A + B  C. Heat of combustion for A, B and C are respectively 330 kcal, 200 kcal and 500 kcal. Standard heat of the reaction is
 (A) 30 kcal
 (B) – 30 kcal
 (C) – 530 kcal
 (D) 530 kcal

84. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel, attained by burning the fuel with theoretically required amount of pure Oxygen is 1215 K. If theoretically required amount of air is used instead of pure Oxygen, the flame temperature can be
 (A) 1215 K
 (B) more than 1215 K
 (C) less than 1215 K
 (D) cannot be predicted

85. Pressure drop in a packed bed for high Reynolds number is given by
 (A) Kozeny Carman equation
 (B) Burke Plummer equation
 (C) Bernoulli’s equation
 (D) Hagen Poiseuille equation

86. Third law of thermodynamics states that
 (A) All spontaneous processes are accompanied by degradation of energy
 (B) All spontaneous processes are to some extent irreversible
 (C) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
 (D) At absolute zero, entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero

87. If two Mixed Flow Reactors in series are used for a second order reaction, which of the following arrangements will perform better ?
 (A) Smaller reactor first, followed by a larger reactor
 (B) Larger reactor first, followed by a smaller reactor
 (C) Two equal sized reactors in series
 (D) All the above give same performance




 91. Pick out wrong statement.
 (A) Maximum possible extent of a reaction is given by thermodynamics.
 (B) Factors influencing rate of reaction are obtained from chemical kinetics.
 (C) Heat liberated or absorbed during a reaction can be calculated ഫ്രം thermodynamic data.
 (D) For all reactions, thermodynamic information alone is sufficient for design.

92. Constant volume hydrometer is used to measure
 (A) density
 (B) viscosity
 (C) pressure
 (D) composition

93. Pirani gauge is used for the measurement of
 (A) atmospheric pressure
 (B) high vacuum
 (C) very high pressure
 (D) moderate pressure

94. Which of the following cannot be used for composition analysis ?
 (A) hydrometer
 (B) Mass spectrometer
 (C) X-ray diffraction
 (D) Thermal conductivity cell

95. If a reaction proceeds with increase in number of moles, presence of inert in the system will
 (A) increase equilibrium yield
 (B) decrease equilibrium yield
 (C) not change equilibrium yield
 (D) cannot be predicted

96. Steps involved in a Carnot cycle are
 (A) Two isothermals and two isobarics
 (B) Two isothermal and two isentropics
 (C) Two isobarics and two isochorics
 (D) Two isentropics and two isobarics

97. Which of the following is an extensive property ?
(A) density
(B) specific heat capacity
(C) entropy
(D) molar entropy

98. For a system consisting of ‘p’ phases and ‘c’ components, if number of independent  reactions involved are ‘r’, number of degrees of freedom is given by
 (A) F = c – p + 2
 (B) F = c – p + r + 2
 (C) F = c – p – r – 2
 (D) F = c – p – r + 2

99. Negative value of Joule -Thomson co-efficient indicates
 (A) Decrease in temperature of gas on throttling
 (B) Increase in temperature of gas on throttling
 (C) Temperature of gas remains constant on throttling
 (D) Joule -Thomson co-efficient is not related to temperature change

100. If 14 g of nitrogen and 4 g of hydrogen undergo reaction to produce ammonia, the  product stream contains (assume complete conversion of limiting reactant)
 (A) 2 g hydrogen and 17 g ammonia
 (B) 7 g nitrogen and 17 g ammonia
 (C) 1 g hydrogen and 17 g ammonia
 (D) 17 g ammonia alone

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