Radiographer Grade II Question Paper and Answer Key

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 82/2022/OL
Category Code: 347/2021
Exam: Radiographer Grade II
Date of Test 01-10-2022
Department Medical Education
Alphacode A

Question1:-Number of electrons flowing per second from filament to target in an x-ray tube refers to
A:-Tube voltage
B:-Tube current
C:-Tube emission
D:-Tue capacitance
Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Melting point of tungsten is
A:-3370 degrees C
B:-9371 degrees C
C:-1000 degrees C
D:-500 degrees C
Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Range of anode angle in x-ray tubes
A:-1 to 2 degree
B:-30 to 40 degree
C:-6 to 20 degree
D:-90 to 100 degree
Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Bucky factor indicates the absorption of
A:-only primary radiation
B:-only secondary radiation
C:-scattered radiation
D:-both primary and secondary radiation
Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-Noise which arises which from the statistical fluctuations in the number of x-ray photons absorbed by the intensifying screen to form an image in a film is also called
A:-Luminescence
B:-Dynamic Range
C:-Quantum Mottle
D:-Speed
Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-Q-factor of a transducer refers to
A:-purity of the sound wave
B:-length of the time of sound wave
C:-acoustic impedance
D:-purity and length of time of sound wave
Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-SI unit for absorbed dose
A:-gray
B:-rem
C:-sievert
D:-roentgen
Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-The time interval between 2 90 degree pulses in MR image acquisition is
A:-PD
B:-TE
C:-TR
D:-GRE
Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-In a CT image, each square in the image matrix is called
A:-voxel
B:-data
C:-element
D:-pixel
Answer:- Option-D

Question10:-'Characteristics curve'  depicts relationship between
A:-power and amplitude
B:-frequency and wavelength
C:-pitch and distance
D:-exposure and density
Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-The structure known as the 'pacemaker of the heart' is
A:-AV node
B:-Bundle of His
C:-Purkinje fibres
D:-SA node
Answer:- Option-D

Question12:-Diabetes incipidus is a medical condition due to deficiency of
A:-Growth hormone
B:-ACTH
C:-ADH
D:-LH
Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-Elevation of medially-rotated eye, abduction and lateral rotation is the action of which extra-ocular muscle
A:-superior oblique
B:-inferior oblique
C:-superior rectus
D:-inferior rectus
Answer:- Option-B

Question14:-Mental foramen is located in which bone ?
A:-scapula
B:-clavicle
C:-mandible
D:-femur
Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-A hollow cavity inside a bone is called
A:-fossa
B:-sinus
C:-sulcus
D:-trochlea
Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-Breast is a _______ gland.
A:-salivary
B:-sweat
C:-sebaceous
D:-lacrimal
Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-Innermost layer of the meninges - the membranous covering surrounding the brain is
A:-dura mater
B:-pia mater
C:-arachnoid mater
D:-grey matter
Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-Forceps major is an anatomical structure in
A:-kidney
B:-brain
C:-liver
D:-lung
Answer:- Option-B

Question19:-The terminal branches of external carotid artery are
A:-lingual A and facial A
B:-superior thyroid A and inferior thyroid A
C:-superficial temporal A and maxillary A
D:-ascending pharyngeal A and lingual A
Answer:- Option-C

Question20:-Nerve within the carpal tunnel is
A:-radial nerve
B:-ulnar nerve
C:-median nerve
D:-sciatic nerve
Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-In a conventional photographic film, gelatin and silver halide are components of
A:-adhesive layer
B:-super-coating
C:-base
D:-emulsion
Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-In film processing, the chemical process that amplifies the latent image - by a factor of millions - to form a visible silver pattern is called
A:-sensitisation
B:-development
C:-fixing
D:-attenuation
Answer:- Option-B

Question23:-Measurement of film blackness is called
A:-linear attenuation
B:-photographic density
C:-transmission
D:-exposure gradient
Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-Film contrast depends on all the following except
A:-characteristic curve of a film
B:-film processing
C:-film density
D:-differential attenuation
Answer:- Option-D

Question25:-Maximum slope of a characteristic curve is
A:-film gamma
B:-film alpha
C:-film theta
D:-film delta
Answer:- Option-A

Question26:-Development of unexposed silver halide grains that do not contain the latent image is called
A:-oxidation
B:-photoelectric effect
C:-fog
D:-automatic exposure
Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Fixation removes unexposed
A:-gelatin
B:-silver halide
C:-ammonium thiosulphate
D:-polyester base
Answer:- Option-B

Question28:-Increasing the time or temperature of film development will cause
A:-decreased film speed
B:-increased radiation exposure
C:-increased fog
D:-decreased average gradient
Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Range of log-relative exposure, that will produce a density within the accepted range for diagnostic radiology, is called
A:-speed
B:-latitude
C:-contrast
D:-spectrum
Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-________ reaction occurs when the photon energy and the electron binding energy are nearly the same.
A:-Pair production
B:-Coherent scattering
C:-Photo-electric reaction
D:-Compton scattering
Answer:- Option-C

Question31:-Nuclides with the same number of protons but different neutrons are
A:-isomer
B:-isotone
C:-isotope
D:-isobar
Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-Technetium-99 has a half life of
A:-6 minutes
B:-6 hours
C:-6 days
D:-6 weeks
Answer:- Option-B
Question deleted

Question33:-Types of biological effects of radiation are
A:-balanced and unbalanced
B:-reversible and irreversible
C:-stochastic and deterministic
D:-linear and non-linear
Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-In PC-PNDT Act, 1994, which is the form for informed consent for invasive procedures
A:-Form A
B:-Form B
C:-Form F
D:-Form G
Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-The MR equivalent of 'power absorbed per unit mass', just like we measure Gy in ionizing radiation, is
A:-Tesla (T)
B:-Thermal Index (TI)
C:-Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
D:-Mechanical Index (MI)
Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-In MRI, the abbreviation TE in a pulse-echo sequence, stands for
A:-tesla echo
B:-thermal efficiency
C:-time to exit
D:-time to echo
Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-The ___________ is the thickness of a specific substance that, when introduced in the path of a beam of radiation, reduces exposure rate by half.
A:-Attenuation Difference (AD)
B:-Half-Life Thickness (HLT)
C:-Half-Value Layer (HVL)
D:-None of these
Answer:- Option-C

Question38:-To differentiate between calcification and haemorrhage, the sequence used in MRI is
A:-Diffusion-weighted image
B:-MR spectroscopy
C:-Susceptibility-weighted imaging
D:-MR perfusion
Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Active CSF leak is confirmed with _________ investigation.
A:-CT fistulogram
B:-CT enterography
C:-CT cisternogram
D:-CT angiogram
Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-Transducer crystals in the USG probe are made up of
A:-Piezoelectric crystals
B:-LCD crystals
C:-Thermocouple crystals
D:-Strain guage
Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-MRI sequence for detecting microscopic fat content in the tissue is
A:-Diffusion-weighted imaging
B:-functional MRI
C:-in-phase and out-of-phase sequence
D:-MR contrast
Answer:- Option-C

Question42:-The appropriate attitude towards a patient seeking assistance in a hospital setting would be
A:-sympathy
B:-empathy
C:-antipathy
D:-apathy
Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-In female patients presenting for ionizing radiation-based investigations, the most important clinical history to be elicited is
A:-financial history
B:-surgical history
C:-menstrual history
D:-medical history
Answer:- Option-C

Question44:-All these are ionizing radiation except
A:-x-ray
B:-gamma ray
C:-beta ray
D:-ultra-violet radiation
Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-The 3 basic principles of radiation protection
A:-sensitisation, standardisation, subsidisation
B:-jurisdiction, optimization, legalisation
C:-justification, optimization, dose-limitation
D:-sustainability, compatibility, longevity
Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-What is the relationship between the radiation dose and distance ? Doubling distance will decrease dose by
A:-one-half
B:-one-third
C:-one-fourth
D:-one-fifth
Answer:- Option-C

Question47:-AERB stands for
A:-Applied and Essential Radiology Background
B:-Assisted and Enhanced Radiation Barrier
C:-Applied Exposure Regulatory Board
D:-Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
Answer:- Option-D

Question48:-The absolute density in CT is measured in __________ units.
A:-tesla
B:-voxel
C:-hounsfield
D:-roentgen
Answer:- Option-C

Question49:-Radiation -induced cancer and genetic effects are considered ______ biological effects of radiation.
A:-deterministic
B:-stochastic
C:-characteristic
D:-catastrophic
Answer:- Option-B

Question50:-In ante-natal pregnancy scanning, a dedicated fetal anomaly scan is done at ______ gestational age.
A:-5-6 weeks
B:-18-20 weeks
C:-28-32 weeks
D:-38-40 weeks
Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-Half-life (𝑇1/2 ) of a radioactive substance is related to the average life (𝑇� ) by which equation ?
A:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44𝑇�
B:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44 + 𝑇�
C:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇� /1.44
D:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇� − 1.44
Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-X-ray quantity is the
A:-Energy of the X-ray beam
B:-Number of X-ray photons in the X-ray beam
C:-Energy of electrons hitting the target
D:-All of the above
Answer:- Option-B

Question53:-Which of the following is not a gas filled detector ?
A:-Scintillation detector
B:-Proportional counter
C:-GM detector
D:-Ionization chamber
Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-Track of ionization produced by secondary electrons are known as
A:-Bragg peak
B:-Delta rays
C:-Alpha rays
D:-Stopping power
Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-Tissue Air Ratio (TAR) is independent of
A:-Depth
B:-Field size
C:-Beam energy
D:-SSD
Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-Fluoroscopy images can be recorded by means of
A:-Spot film cassette
B:-Photo spot films
C:-Digital recording
D:-All of the above
Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-The line passing through points of equal dose is known as
A:-Isocentre
B:-Penumbra
C:-Isodose curve
D:-Build up depth
Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-The measure of total energy absorbed in treated volume is
A:-Effective dose
B:-Equivalent dose
C:-Integral dose
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-C

Question59:-The unit of absorbed dose is
A:-rem
B:-rad
C:-curie
D:-sievert
Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-In the Build Up region, KERMA is _________ absorbed dose.
A:-Greater than
B:-Equal to
C:-Smaller than
D:-Twice the
Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-The half-life of Gold 198 (Au-198) is
A:-6.02 hrs
B:-73.8 days
C:-17 days
D:-2.7 days
Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-The total activity of all radioisotopes discharged into the sewage in one year by any institution shall not exceed
A:-1 Ci
B:-2 Ci
C:-5 Ci
D:-10 Ci
Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-Tc-99 m emits gamma energy of
A:-159 keV
B:-80 keV
C:-364 keV
D:-140 keV
Answer:- Option-D

Question64:-Which of the following is the AERB safety directive describes the dose limits for exposures from ionizing radiations for workers and the members of the public
A:-AERB Directive No. 01/2011
B:-AERB Directive No. 02/2011
C:-AERB Directive No. 01/2021
D:-AERB Directive No. 02/2021
Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-What is the minimum primary wall thickness of a typical Telecobalt bunker ?
A:-190 cm
B:-220 cm
C:-130 cm
D:-45 cm
Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-1 TVT = __________ HVT.
A:-33
B:-0.33
C:-33.33
D:-3.3
Answer:- Option-D

Question67:-Lateral wall of Nasopharynx contain all except
A:-Torus tubarius
B:-Fossa of Rosemuller
C:-Basilar portion of sphenoid
D:-Pharyngo tympanic tube
Answer:- Option-C

Question68:-Bimodal age distribution is found in which Carcinoma of head and neck ?
A:-Cancer oropharynx
B:-Cancer nasopharynx
C:-Cancer larynx
D:-Cancer oral cavity
 Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Acinic cell carcinoma salivary gland arises from
A:-Mucus producing cells and cells of intermediate type
B:-Myoepithelial cells
C:-Excretory duct cells
D:-Terminal ducts & Intercalated ducts
Answer:- Option-D

Question70:-In AJCC staging of head and neck tumors, which carcinoma staging takes into consideration the human papilloma virus status
A:-Cancer oropharynx
B:-Cancer nasopharynx
C:-Cancer larynx
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-A

Question71:-In cervical carcinoma, presence of hydronephrosis is staged as
A:-Stage II A
B:-Stage II B
C:-Stage III A
D:-Stage III B
Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-First site of distant metastasis in cervical cancer is
A:-Lung
B:-Abdominal cavity
C:-Spine
D:-Liver
Answer:- Option-A

Question73:-Breast anatomically extends cranio-caudally from
A:-First rib to sixth rib anteriorly
B:-First rib to fifth rib anteriorly
C:-Second rib to sixth rib anteriorly
D:-Second rib to fifth rib anteriorly
Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Well established risk factors in development of cancer breast includes all except
A:-Early menarche
B:-Germ line mutation
C:-Obesity after menopause
D:-Early menopause
Answer:- Option-D

Question75:-R-S cells are signature neoplastic cells of
A:-Classic non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B:-Classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
C:-Chronic myeloid leukemia
D:-Acute myeloblastic leukemia
Answer:- Option-B

Question76:-Rectum is approximately ___________ in length.
A:-8 to 11 cm
B:-10 to 13 cm
C:-12 to 15 cm
D:-15 to 18 cm
Answer:- Option-C

Question77:-Cancer registry in India under ICMR include
A:-Population based and community based registry
B:-Population based and hospital based registry
C:-Community based and clinic based registry
D:-Population based registries only
Answer:- Option-B

Question78:-Common ethical issues directly affecting Oncology patients are all except
A:-Electronic record keeping
B:-Financial relationship into industry sponsors
C:-Genetic counseling
D:-Plagiarism and fabrication
Answer:- Option-D

Question79:-Patient counseling before radiation planning and start of treatment should include all except
A:-Informed consent duly signed
B:-Giving educational brochure on instructions, common side effects and their initial management
C:-Both of the above
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-Radiation induced salivary dysfunction can be prevented by
A:-Limiting mean dose to parotid glands to 45 Gy
B:-Amifostine therapy
C:-Both of the above
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Intensity modulated radiotherapy includes _________ before plan acceptance.
A:-Inverse planning and defining constraints
B:-Forward planning and selecting beam parameters
C:-Optimization of treatment design
D:-Both 1 and 3
Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-Which volume takes into consideration the organ motion and setup variations in IMRT planning ?
A:-Gross tumor volume
B:-Clinical target volume
C:-Planning target volume
D:-Planning risk volume
Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-The rationale for _________ fractionation is that reduction of overall treatment time decreases the opportunity for tumor cell regeneration.
A:-Accelerated fractionation radiotherapy
B:-Hyper fractionation radiotherapy
C:-Conventional fractionation radiotherapy
D:-Both 1 and 2
Answer:- Option-A

Question84:-Biological effect of concurrent chemo radiation include all except
A:-Shift of cell survival curves towards higher cell killing levels
B:-A decrease in tumor mass and re-oxygenation
C:-Increased apoptosis
D:-Favorer DNA repair
Answer:- Option-D

Question85:-Spinal cord tolerance in radiotherapy
A:-35 Gy
B:-45 Gy
C:-55 Gy
D:-65 Gy
Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-SBRT is
A:-Systemic Based Radiotherapy
B:-Stereotactic Based Radiotherapy
C:-Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy
D:-Systemic Body Radiotherapy
Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-All can be used in cancer treatment except
A:-Proton therapy
B:-Neutron therapy
C:-Carbon ions
D:-Nitrogen ions
Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-HDR (High Dose Rate) brachytherapy is
A:->12 Gy/hour
B:->10 Gy/hour
C:->20 Gy/hour
D:->22 Gy/hour
Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-Brachytherapy technique is commonly used in all except
A:-Cancer Cervix
B:-Cancer Prostate
C:-Cancer Buccal Mucosa
D:-Cancer Brain
Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-ICRU (International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements) 38 defines
A:-IMRT
B:-3DCRT
C:-Brachytherapy
D:-IGRT
Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-Radiopharmaceuticals include all except
A:-Iodine-131
B:-Phosphorus-32
C:-Strontium-89
D:-Radium-203
Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-In nasopharyngeal carcinoma, gross disease is given a total dose of
A:-80 Gy
B:-70 Gy
C:-60 Gy
D:-54 Gy
Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-Left parotid gland radiation treatment is conventionally planned in which treatment position ?
A:-Supine with neck extended
B:-Supine with neck flexed
C:-Supine with head turned to left
D:-Supine with head turned to right
Answer:- Option-D

Question94:-Level IV neck node include
A:-Upper deep cervical lymph nodes
B:-Lower deep cervical lymph nodes
C:-Middle deep cervical lymph nodes
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-Palliative radiotherapy common schedules to spine metastasis include
A:-50 Gy/25 fractions/5 weeks
B:-65 Gy/20 fractions/5 weeks
C:-30 Gy/10 fractions/2 weeks
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-C

Question96:-In breast planning, brachial plexus dose volume constraints is kept at
A:-maximum 54 Gy
B:-Mean dose 54 Gy
C:-Maximum 44 Gy
D:-Mean dose 44 Gy
Answer:- Option-A

Question97:-Neo adjuvant radiotherapy is used for down staging and functional preservation in treatment of
A:-astrocytoma brain
B:-cancer lung
C:-cancer rectum
D:-none of the above
Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Which chemotherapy drug is not used in concurrent chemo radiotherapy for anal cancer ?
A:-Adriamycin
B:-Mitomycin C
C:-5-flurouracil
D:-Cyclophosphamide
Answer:- Option-A

Question99:-Early vocal cord cancers can be treated by all except
A:-Radical radiotherapy
B:-Trans oral laser micro surgery
C:-Trans oral robotic surgery
D:-Total laryngectomy
Answer:- Option-D

Question100:-Superior border in cancer cervix, external beam radiotherapy planning is taken as
A:-L2-L3 vertebral inter space
B:-L3-L4 vertebral inter space
C:-L5-S1 vertebral inter space
D:-None of the above
Answer:- Option-B