Question Code: 064/2022 (A)
Name of Post: Legal Assistant/ Legal Assistant Grade II
Department: KSIDC Ltd/ Law Department (Govt.
Secretariat)
Cat. No: 67/2020, 478/2020, 479/2020, 480/2020
Date of Test: 03.06.2022
1. What was the contention of Hart regarding the interrelation between law and morality in the course of Hart-Fuller debate ?
(A) There is no necessary connection between law and morality.
(B) Moral validity is a condition precedent for legal validity.
(C) Morals can be accepted into law only after a validation process.
(D) Legal systems contain an ‘internal morality’ that imposes an obligation of obedience.
2. What is the jural correlative of ‘power’ according to Hohfeldian analysis of ‘Rights in a Wider Sense’ ?
(A) Duty
(B) Immunity
(C) Liability
(D) Disability
3. What, according to Salmond, is the definition of the legal concept of ‘property’ ?
(A) Proprietary ‘rights in rem’
(B) Proprietary ‘rights in personam’
(C) Personal rights over tangible objects
(D) Personal ‘rights in rem’
4. Doctrine of ‘prospective overruling’ was for the first time applied in India in the case of:
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala [AIR 1973 SC 1461]
(B) I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab [AIR 1967 SC 1643]
(C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras [AIR 1950 SC 27]
(D) None of the above
5. Who among the following jurists was against codification of laws ?
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) John Austin
(C) Cesare Beccaria
(D) Friedrich Carl von Savigny
6. Which one of the following philosophies regards ‘pleasure’ as the ultimate goal of life ?
(A) Positivism
(B) Hedonism
(C) Stoicism
(D) Naturalism
7. What is an ‘imperfect right’ ?
(A) A right which corresponds to a negative duty
(B) A person’s right over another’s property
(C) A right which is not enforceable by law
(D) A right which is not recognized by law
8. Which of the following maxims means that the meaning of a word can be known by its associate words ?
(A) Ex visceribus actus
(B) Noscitur a sociis
(C) Reddendo singula singulis
(D) Contra proferentem
9. Which rule of interpretation refers to the idea that words are used in a lawful and rightful sense ?
(A) In bonam partem
(B) Ejusdem generis
(C) In pari materia
(D) Casus omissus
10. Where there are provisions in a special Act and in a general Act on the same subject which are inconsistent, the specific principle of interpretation applicable is:
(A) Ut res magis valeat quam pereat
(B) Expressio unius exclusio alterius
(C) Ex visceribus actus
(D) Generalia specialibus non derogant
11. The Preamble of the Constitution of India got inspiration from which constitution ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) Germany
12. Reservation of seats for SCs & STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was extended from 70 years to 80 years by ______ amendment.
(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 104
(D) 100
13. The chairperson of GST Council is
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Finance Minister
(C) Union Revenue Minister
(D) President
14. Which of the following statement is correct ?
1. Delegated legislation cannot modify the parent Act.
2. Judiciary can strike down delegated legislation if it is contrary to parent Act.
3. Delegated legislation can provide details contrary to parent Act.
(A) 1 & 2
(B) 1, 2 & 3
(C) 2 & 3
(D) 1 & 3
15. Law under Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution of India include ______ .
(A) Ordinance
(B) Bye law
(C) Regulations
(D) All the above
16. Article 380 of the Constitution deals with setting up of ______ .
(A) Finance Commission
(B) PSC
(C) National Women’s Commission
(D) Election Commission
Question deleted
17. Identify the exceptions to the principle of natural justice.
(A) Necessity
(B) Public Interest
(C) Impracticability
(D) All the above
18. Chairman of UPSC is appointed by ______.
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Vice President
19. Identify the correct answer.
Natural Justice includes ______ .
1. Nemo judex in causa sua
2. Audi alteram partem
3. Doctrine of legitimate expectation
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) Only 1 & 2
(C) Only 1 & 3
(D) Only 2 & 3
20. According to A.V. Dicey, rule of law includes
1. Equality before law
2. Supremacy of law
3. Equal justice
4. Pre-dominance of legal spirit
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 1, 2 & 4
(D) 1, 3 & 4
21. The defence of infancy under Section 82 of IPC lays down:
(A) a rebuttable presumption of law
(B) a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
(C) a presumption of fact
(D) none of the above.
22. Assertion (A) : The Indian Penal Code contains certain exceptions from criminal liability.
Reason (R) : There cannot be universal criminal liability in all circumstances. From these statements decide:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
23. X intentionally causes Y’s death partly by illegally omitting to give food and partly by beating. Decide the offence committed by X ?
(A) Hurt
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) Murder
24. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sections 34 & 149 of IPC ?
(A) Common intention and common object are distinct offences in themselves,
(B) Common intention and common object are the same.
(C) Section 34 creates no specific offence, while Section 149 creates a specific
offence.
(D) Section 34 incorporates constructive liability principle while Section 149
incorporates joint liability principle.
25. The Supreme Court held in the case of State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar N. Mardikar, that:
(A) Intercourse with a prostitute against her will is a rape.
(B) Intercourse with a prostitute is not a rape.
(C) Evidence of a prostitute cannot be considered.
(D) The unchastity of a woman make her open to every person.
26. In which of the following cases, police can arrest a person without a warrant ?
(A) When any person commits a non-cognizable offence.
(B) When the presence of that person in the court is assured.
(C) Has committed an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term less than 7 years.
(D) Has committed an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term more than 7 years.
27. “An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by Law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years”. This statement is
(A) Absolutely correct
(B) Partially correct
(C) Incorrect
(D) Not defined
28. Which among the following instances, the offence cannot be tried summarily ;
(A) Offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding 3 months.
(B) Offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding 6 months.
(C) Offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding 2 years.
(D) Offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding 3 years.
29. The statement of the accused under Section 313 of Criminal Procedure Code :
(A) Has to be recorded on oath.
(B) Has to be recorded without oath.
(C) Either on oath or without oath depending on whether the case is a summons trial or a warrant trial.
(D) Either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the Court.
30. A preliminary inquiry into the commission of offence under Section 159 of Criminal Procedure Code, can be conducted :
(A) By the police.
(B) By the Magistrate having jurisdiction to take cognizance.
(C) By any Magistrate subordinate to the Magistrate having jurisdiction, under the orders of such Magistrate.
(D) (B) and (C) only
31. A sues B for possession of property contending that he is tenant of C and C is joined as pro-forma defendant. The suit is dismissed as the Court finds B to be the owner.Thereafter, C files a fresh suit against B for possession on the basis of title. Is the suit filed by C maintainable ?
(A) Findings of the earlier suit would operate as Res Judicata in a subsequent suit and the suit is not maintainable.
(B) Findings of the earlier suit would not operate as Res Judicata in a subsequent suit as C was only a pro-forma defendant and suit is maintainable since no relief was claimed against him.
(C) B’s contention that the issue regarding ownership of property is already decided in the former suit would operate as Res Judicata and the subsequent suit must fail is valid.
(D) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements are true as to Set-off and Counter-claim:
(A) If the plaintiff suit is dismissed for default, or withdrawn or he fails to substantiate his claim at the trial and his suit is dismissed, it affects the claim for a set-off by the defendant.
(B) Court fee is not payable for both set-off and Counter-claim.
(C) Counter-claim has the effect of a cross-suit and the court can pronounce a final judgment both on the original claim and the Counter-claim.
(D) Set-off is not a reciprocal acquittal of debts between two persons.
33. A deposits a box of jewels with B as his agent. He then writes to C for the purpose of making the jewels a security for a debt due from himself to C. A afterwards alleges that C’s debt is satisfied, and C alleges the contrary. Both claim the jewels from B. Advise B ?
(A) B may institute an interpleader suit against A and C since C claims through A.
(B) B cannot institute an interpleader suit against principal A even though C claims through A.
(C) B cannot institute an interpleader suit against A and C.
(D) Both (B) & (C).
34. Assertion : Judgment on admissions cannot be claimed by parties as a matter of right.
Reason : Power to give judgment under Order XII Rule 6 of CPC is discretionary.
(A) Both assertion and reason are false.
(B) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(D) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
35. The Scienter Rule is related to which of the following tortious liability ?
(A) Liability for Dangerous Premises
(B) Liability for Dangerous Chattels
(C) Liability for Animals
(D) Liability for Misstatements
36. A proposes, by a letter sent by post, to sell his house to B. B accepts the proposal by a letter sent by post. A and B may revoke his proposal and acceptance respectively at
(i) Any time before or at the moment when B posts his letter of acceptance but not afterwards.
(ii) Any time after or the moment when B posts his letter of acceptance.
(iii) Any time before or at the moment when the letter communicating it reaches A, but not afterwards.
(iv) Any time after or at the moment when the letter communicating reaches A.
(A) Both (i) & (iii)
(B) Both (iii) & (iv)
(C) Both (ii) & (i)
(D) Both (i) & (iv)
37. Assertion : Surety’s liability comes to an end if the principal debtor is discharged by the creditors.
Reason : Surety’s liability is co-extensive with that of principal debtor.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true.
(B) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(C) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(D) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
38. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Goods remain at the seller’s risk until the property therein is transferred to the buyer.
(B) Goods are at the buyer’s risk when the property therein is transferred to the buyer whether delivery has been made or not.
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) The goods are not at the risk of either buyer or seller when delivery is delayed.
39. A and B were partners in a firm X & Co. A retired but no public notice of the retirement was given. C joined as a new partner. The partnership of B and C continued as X & Co. A creditor of this partnership bought a suit against A, B and C. Decide
(A) The creditor can sue all the three partners.
(B) The creditor cannot sue all the three since he should elect between the partnership by estoppel between A and B and the existing partnership
between B and C.
(C) The creditor cannot make A liable since he is a partner by holding out.
(D) The creditor can make both A & C liable.
40. A owes B, under a contract, a sum of money, the amount of which has not been ascertained. A, without ascertaining the amount gives to B, and B, in satisfaction thereof, accepts, the sum of ` 2000/-, then
(A) A is discharged of the whole debt under Section 63 of Indian Contract Act.
(B) A is not discharged of the whole debt and B can claim balance amount if any.
(C) A is partially discharged from the performance of contract.
(D) None of the above
41. Which among the following statement is true ?
(A) A dying declaration stands on the same footing as any other piece of evidence.
(B) A dying declaration recorded by the Magistrate in question answer form stands on a much higher footing.
(C) A dying declaration is admissible in evidence even though it has not been made on oath.
(D) All of the above.
42. A gun, suspected to be used in a murder 5 years ago, was found from the possession of Venu. He claims that the gun is not his and that his friend Aravind owns the gun. Who has the burden to prove that Venu is not the owner of that gun ?
(A) Venu
(B) Aravind
(C) Police
(D) Prosecution
43. Which of the following fall under the category of privileged communications under the Evidence Act, 1872 ?
i. Communications during marriage.
ii. Professional communications between lawyer and client.
iii. Professional communications between a doctor and patient.
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only i & iii
(C) Only ii & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
44. Which of these questions are lawful in cross -examination of witness under the Evidence Act, 1872 ?
i. Leading questions
ii. Questions to test veracity of the witness
iii. Questions to injure the character of the witness
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only i & iii
(C) Only ii & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
45. Which of the following fall under the category of ‘document’ under the Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(A) Printouts
(B) CDs
(C) Data on Hard disk
(D) All of the above
46. Which of the following are permissible deductions that can be made from wages ?
i. Fines imposed.
ii. Withholding of increment in conformity with procedure.
iii. Deduction for house / accommodation provided by employer.
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only ii & iii
(C) Only i & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
47. Who among these can be an aggrieved person under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 ?
i. A woman working in an establishment.
ii. A woman visiting a workplace.
iii. A student in an educational institution.
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only ii & iii
(C) Only i & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
48. Mr. P started a factory for manufacture of shoes on 1st January 2018 which is still in operation. He made a very huge profit in the accounting year 2020-2021 and the allocable surplus exceeded the minimum bonus amount for all employees. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Mr. P has to pay minimum bonus to all employees for all accounting years starting from 2018.
(B) Mr. P has to pay minimum bonus to all employees only for the accounting year he made profit.
(C) Mr. P has to pay bonus proportionate to the salary of the employees for all accounting years starting from 2018.
(D) Mr. P has to pay bonus proportionate to the salary of the employees only for the accounting year he made profit.
49. Due to the rise in COVID cases, the Government is declaring a lock down. An employer wants to reduce the number of employees in his factory during this period of lockdown due to non-availability of raw material. Which among the following measure should he opt ?
(A) Lock-Out
(B) Lay-Off
(C) Retrenchment
(D) Closure of the factory
50. The general fund of a registered trade union cannot be used for which of the following purpose ?
(A) Prosecution or defence of any legal proceeding to which the trade union is a party.
(B) For educational, social or religious benefits of any members.
(C) For holding of any meeting in support of any candidate for election as member of legislative body.
(D) Allowances to members or dependents in case of death, old age, sickness, accidents or unemployment.
51. Who among the following can claim maintenance under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act ?
i. Grandparents
ii. Adoptive parents
iii. Step-parents
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only i & iii
(C) Only ii & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
52. In which of the following case was it held by the Supreme Court that “the discrimination on the ground of ‘sex’ under Articles 15 and 16 includes discrimination on the ground of gender identity” ?
(A) People’s Union of Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(B) National Legal Service Authority v. Union of India
(C) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
(D) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
53. Which of the following are obligations of the governments in relation to persons with disabilities ?
i. Ensure enjoyment of right to equality and life with dignity.
ii. Ensure the right to live in a community.
iii. Ensure access to information regarding reproduction.
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only ii & iii
(C) Only i & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
54. A woman complaint that her husband and mother-in-law repeatedly says that her husband does not love her and does not give any money to maintain her. They also threaten to throw her out of her house. Which of the acts can be done under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 ?
i. Raise complaint against her husband.
ii. Raise complaint against her mother-in-law.
iii. Apply for monthly maintenance.
(A) Only i & ii
(B) Only ii & iii
(C) Only i & iii
(D) All of the above (i, ii & iii)
55. Which of the following is covered under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 ?
(A) Aggravated sexual assault
(B) Sexual harassment
(C) Using child for pornographic purpose
(D) All of the above
56. The Perpetuity period under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is
(A) 80 years from the date of transfer.
(B) One or more lives in being and 21 years thereafter.
(C) One or more lives in being and the minority of some person who shall be in existence at the termination of the prior interest.
(D) One or more lives in being and thirty years thereafter.
57. Negative covenants are those where
(A) The transferee incurs a financial burden.
(B) The covenants run with the land.
(C) The covenantor is required to do certain acts for the benefit of the transferor.
(D) It cannot be enforced against the subsequent purchaser.
58. Which of the following is/are true in the case of a simple mortgage
(i) There is delivery of possession of the mortgaged property.
(ii) There is personal liability of the mortgagor.
(iii) Mortgaged property can be sold without the intervention of the court.
(iv) The mortgagee can enjoy the usufructs of the mortgaged property.
(A) Only (i) & (iii)
(B) Only (ii) & (iv)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) All the above
59. A gift by a single transfer to the same person of several things one of which is and the others are not burdened by an obligation is called
(A) Revocable gifts
(B) Onerous gifts
(C) Absolute gifts
(D) Donation mortis causa
60. Which of the following principles under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 cannot be said to be an exception to the maxim nemo dat quod non habet ?
(A) Doctrine of Election
(B) Part Performance
(C) Transfer by Ostensible owner
(D) Transfer by unauthorized person
61. Joint Forest Management was started in the year
(A) 1980
(B) 1985
(C) 1990
(D) 1999
62. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 identifies which of the following types of rights to Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers ?
(A) Title rights
(B) Community rights
(C) Right to in situ rehabilitation
(D) All of the above
63. The National Green Tribunal while passing any order or decision or award shall apply the following principle
(A) Sustainable development
(B) Precautionary principle
(C) Polluter pays principle
(D) All of the above
64. When the Government intends to acquire land for a public purpose, it shall carry out Social Impact Assessment study. However, the appropriate Government may exempt the undertaking of Social Impact Assessment study where land is proposed to be acquired invoking the urgency provisions laid down under
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 40
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 42
65. The Kigali amendment was an amendment to which of the following international conventions aimed at conserving the environment ?
(A) Kyoto Protocol
(B) Ramsar Convention
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) Basel Convention
66. Arrange the following treaties in chronological order. Use the code given below
(1) Convention on the law of sea
(2) Chicago Civil Aviation Convention
(3) The Moon Treaty
(4) Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of the States
(A) (4) (2) (3) (1)
(B) (1) (4) (2) (3)
(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(D) (1) (2) (3) (4)
67. Which of the following international legal maxim means, “Norms which are nonderogable and peremptory, enjoy the highest status within customary international law, are binding on all nations, and cannot be preempted by treaty” ?
(A) Opinio juris
(B) Terrae nullius
(C) Jus cogens
(D) Pacta sunt servanda
68. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct answer relating to the refugee states in international law.
Statement - 1
The 1967 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees and its Protocol recognizes certain rights and privileges to the refugee persons.
Statement - 2
A refugee is a person who is “owing to well-founded fear of being persecuted for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality and is unable or, owing to such fear, is unwilling to avail himself of the protection of that country”.
(A) Statement 1 is true
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
(C) Statement 2 is true
(D) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
69. Using the codes, choose the essential qualifications a state should posses as an International person under Article 1 of Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of the State, 1933
(1) A Permanent population
(2) A defined territory
(3) Government
(4) Willingness to obey international norms
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) Only (1)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (2) and (3)
70. Which of the following article in Protocol Additional to the Geneva Conventions of 12 August 1949, and relating to the Protection of Victims of International Armed Conflicts (Protocol I), 8 June 1977 states that “Journalists engaged in dangerous professionalmissions in conflict areas are to be protected as having civilian status, and may obtain a
special identity card ?
(A) Article 79
(B) Article 86
(C) Article 78(1)
(D) Article 25
71. Find out the correctly spelt word from the following.
(A) Beaurocracy
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Burocracy
(D) Beaurocrasy
72. Choose the correct sentence from the following.
(A) The parents as well as the kid were responsible for the poor performance.
(B) The parents as well as the kid was responsible for the poor performance.
(C) The kid as well as the parents were responsible for the poor performance.
(D) The kid, as well as the parents also responsible for the poor performance.
73. Change the voice
Who makes the disturbance ?
(A) By whom the disturbance is made ?
(B) The disturbance is made by whom ?
(C) By whom is the disturbance made ?
(D) Whom is the disturbance made ?
74. If you ______ the patient in time, we could have saved his life.
(A) brought
(B) had brought
(C) were bring
(D) have brought
75. Use the correct one word for the underlined phrase
The hare ran away with short and quick jumps
(A) trotted
(B) leaped
(C) scampered
(D) shuffled away
76. Choose the correct form of reported speech.
Sheela said to me, “I have been living here since my childhood.”
(A) Sheela told me that she was living there since her childhood.
(B) Sheela told me that she has been living there since her childhood.
(C) Sheela told me that she had been living there since her childhood.
(D) Sheela told me that she had been living here since her childhood.
77. Choose the correct meaning the underlined idiom.
Sheela cut a dash at the party the other day that everyone praised her.
(A) was stylish and impressive
(B) sang beautifully
(C) delivered a speech
(D) was eloquent
78. No sooner ______ the bus than the driver ______ the bus.
(A) had he entered— started
(B) he had entered— did start
(C) entered— started
(D) would enter —would start
79. Everybody is interested, ______ ?
(A) aren’t they ?
(B) isn’t it ?
(C) isn’t he ?
(D) isn’t everybody ?
80. The meaning of the idiom, ‘break a leg’ is...
(A) to insult
(B) to cause injury
(C) to oppose
(D) to wish good luck
81. He died ______ cancer.
(A) of
(B) from
(C) by
(D) with
82. I saw Mr. John ______ year ago.
(A) an
(B) a
(C) the
(D) no article
83. A deipnosophist is a person skilled in ______.
(A) table talk
(B) dramatics
(C) recitation
(D) telling lies
84. Opposite of the word ‘Invincible’ is... .
(A) unconquerable
(B) vulnerable
(C) unimaginable
(D) superficial
85. Sheela ______ to the market when the accident ______ .
(A) was going, occurred
(B) has gone, occurred
(C) had been going, occurred
(D) went, occurred
86. John fell ______ with his father and refused to talk to him.
(A) in
(B) off
(C) over
(D) out
87. Had I not helped him, he ______ escaped.
(A) might not
(B) could not
(C) would not have
(D) would
88. Every member of that crowd of 500 people ______ not interested to move forward.
(A) were
(B) was
(C) have
(D) do have
89. Nobody called, ______ ?
(A) do they ?
(B) did they ?
(C) didn’t they ?
(D) didn’t anybody ?
90. Find out the wrongly spelt word from the following.
(A) Vacuum
(B) Superintendent
(C) Secretary
(D) Accomodation
91. Which among the following was the only session of Indian National Congress that was presided by Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Nagpur
(B) Amaravati
(C) Karachi
(D) Belgaum
92. Who has the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament ?
(A) Speaker
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Union Law Minister
93. Which is not related to Silent Valley National Park ?
(A) Silent Valley National Park is the second National Park in Kerala.
(B) Silent Valley declared as the National Park in 1984.
(C) Silent Valley National Park was inaugurated by Indira Gandhi.
(D) Silent Valley National Park is an ever green forest.
94. Which one of the following bodies finalizes the five year plan proposal ?
(A) National Development Council
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Union Cabinet
(D) Ministry of Planning
95. Indian Council for Cultural Relations was founded by
(A) Sayed Ahamed Khan
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Rajagopalachari
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
96. Which of the following group of rivers originated from Himachal Mountain ?
(A) Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum
(B) Satlej, Beas and Chambal
(C) Beas, Ravi and Chenab
(D) Chambal, Jhelum and Satlej
97. Which city in China will be the host for 2022 Asian Games ?
(A) Shenshen
(B) Shanghai
(C) Guangzhou
(D) Hangzhou
98. Which type of Hackers use their capabilities to uncover security flaws so they can make recommendations for improvement ?
(A) Grey hat
(B) Black hat
(C) White hat
(D) All of the above
99. The Sanskrit book “Bhakti Manjary” written by
(A) Swati Tirunal
(B) Kalidas
(C) V.T. Battathiripad
(D) Gauri Lakshmi Bai
100. The unit of Refractive Index is
(A) metre
(B) cm
(C) watt
(D) No unit
No comments:
Post a Comment