Nursing Tutor Question Paper and Answer Key

 

 Name of Post: Nursing Tutor 

Department: Health Services 

Cat. No: 122/2021

Date of Test: 21.10.2022

Question Code: 100/2022 (A)

Medium of Question- English

1. Arterial Blood Gas analysis of pH 7.3, PaO 56 mm of Hg, Pa 2 CO2 74 mm of Hg, HCO3–26 mmol/L indicates :
(A) Metabolic acidosis
(B) Respiratory acidosis
(C) Metabolic alkalosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer: B

2. Right lumbar region is occupied by :
(A) Liver, gall bladder, right colon
(B) Liver gall bladder, right kidney, small intestine
(C) Appendix, caecum
(D) Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

Correct Answer: A

3. Spinal cord injury at the level of T1 and L1-L2 results in the following motor loss :
(A) Quadriplegia
(B) Quadriplegia with intact diaphragmatic breathing
(C) Paraplegia
(D) Mixed loss of bowel, bladder and sexual function

Correct Answer: C

4. The venous return from the stomach and intestine drains into the :
(A) Mesenteric vein
(B) Internal iliac vein
(C) External iliac vein
(D) Portal vein

Correct Answer: D

5. Arterial supply of femoral head is by :
(A) Ligamentum teres artery
(B) Medial epiphyseal artery
(C) Hemiazygous artery
(D) Profunda femoris

Correct Answer: D

6. Appendix of epididymis is derived from :
(A) Wolfian duct
(B) Truncus arteriosus
(C) Para axial mesoderm
(D) Urogenital sinus

Correct Answer: A

7. The position which facilitates diaphragm excursion and enhanced lung expansion:
(A) Semi fowler’s position
(B) Fowler’s position
(C) Dorsal recumbent position
(D) Prone position

Correct Answer: B

8. The steps of hand washing when arranged in order includes :
 (i) Wash Thumbs
(ii) Wash knuckles and fingers
(iii) Wash palm of hands
 (iv) Wash back of hands
(A) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Correct Answer: A

9. The recommended rate of flow of oxygen through a nasal cannula :
(A) 3 – 6 L/mt
(B) 1 – 4 L/mt
(C) 4 – 8 L/mt
(D) 6 – 10 L/mt

Correct Answer: B

10. According to principles of body mechanics, while lifting or carrying heavy objects, one must :
(A) Hold the back straight
(B) Hold the object away from the body
(C) Keep legs and arm closed
(D) Have a wide base of support

Correct Answer: D

11. The highest level of needs according to Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs is :
(A) Self esteem
(B) Love and belongingness
(C) Self actualization
(D) Safety and security

Correct Answer: C

12. A concern for the welfare and well being of others is known as :
(A) Ethics
(B) Empathy
(C) Integrity
(D) Altruism

Correct Answer: D

13. Critical pathways include identification of variances that always define :
(A) Standards of practice
(B) Patient focused outcomes
(C) Patient problems
(D) Progress of patients

Correct Answer: B

14. While opening a wrapped sterile item, the nurse must first :
(A) Open outermost flap away from the body, keeping arm outstretched and away from sterile field
(B) Open innermost flap towards the body first, keeping arm outstretched and away from sterile field
(C) Open side flap and pull to side
(D) Stand close to sterile package

Correct Answer: A

15. The temperature of water in the hot water bag which is considered safer for normal adult and child over 2 years is :
(A) 40.5°C – 46°C
(B) 46°C – 52°C
(C) 52°C – 55°C
(D) 60°C – 65°C

Correct Answer: B

16. What is the primary pathophysiologic process of spinal shock?
(A) Loss of control of cardiovascular mechanism
(B) Temporary loss of reflex function below the level of injury
(C) Exaggerated sympathetic response
(D) Damage to the lower motor neurons

Correct Answer: B

17. The polydipsia and polyuria related to diabetes mellitus are primarily caused by :
(A) The release of ketones from cells during fat metabolism
(B) Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia
(C) Damage to the kidneys from exposure to high levels of glucose
(D) Changes in RBC resulting from attachment of excessive glucose to Haemoglobin

Correct Answer: B

18. A client has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would
indicate possible cause for this condition?
(A) Kinked catheter tubing
(B) Extreme hypertension
(C) Skin breakdown over the coccyx
(D) Respiratory wheezes and stridor

Correct Answer: A

19. The most effective intervention in decreasing absorption of an ingested poison is :
(A) Ipecac syrup
(B) Milk dilution
(C) Gastric lavage
(D) Activated charcoal

Correct Answer: D

20. Carotid Endarterectomy is done to :
(A) Decrease cerebral edema
(B) Reduce the brain damage that occurs during a stroke in evolution
(C) Prevent a stroke by removing artheroscerotic plaques blocking cerebral blood flow
(D) Provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation

Correct Answer: C

21. Normal PR interval is :
(A) 0.2 seconds
(B) 0.012 – 0.020 seconds
(C) 0.010 seconds
(D) 0.3 – 0.5 seconds

Correct Answer: B

22. Impetigo is an inflammatory skin disease caused by :
(A) Pneumococci
(B) Staphylococcus Aureus
(C) LICE
(D) Ring worm infection

Correct Answer: B

23. An ABG value with decreased PaCO2, increased pH with normal bicarbonate indicate :
(A) Metabolic Acidosis
(B) Respiratory Acidosis
(C) Metabolic Alkalosis
(D) Respiratory Alkalosis

Correct Answer: D

24. Inability to recognize an object by feeling its size and shape is called :
(A) Astereognosis
(B) Agraphia
(C) Anosognosia
(D) Apraxia

Correct Answer: A

25. Cushing’s triad is observed in :
(A) Cholecystitis
(B) Head injury
(C) Cushing’s syndrome
(D) Shock

Correct Answer: B

26. The technique that uses ultrasound vibrations to break up the opacified lens material is called :
(A) Evisceration
(B) Enucleation
(C) Phacoemulsification
(D) Intracapsular lens extraction

Correct Answer: C

27. The ideal cuff pressure of a tracheostomy tube is :
(A) Less than 10 cm H₂O  
(B) 18 – 20 cm H₂O
(C) 20 – 30 cm H₂O  
(D) More than 30 cm H₂O

Correct Answer: C

28. The most common pathologic finding in individuals with sudden cardiac death is :
(A) Cardiomyopathies
(B) Mitral Value Disease
(C) Artherosclerotic Disease
(D) Left Ventricular Hypertrophy

Correct Answer: C

29. The Oxygen delivery system chosen for the patient in acute respiratory failure should :
(A) Always be a low flow device such as nasal canula
(B) Correct the PaO2 to a normal level as quickly as possible
(C) Administer positive pressure ventilation to prevent CO2 narcosis
(D) Maintain the PaO2 at 60 mm Hg or greater at the lowest O2 concentration possible

Correct Answer: D

30. The normal CSF protein is :
(A) 15 – 45 mg/dl
(B) 15 – 45 gm/dl
(C) 5 – 15 mg/dl
(D) 5 – 15 gm/dl

Correct Answer: A

31. Transverse cervical ligament is also known as :
(A) Pubocervical ligament
(B) Mackenrodts ligament
(C) Round ligament
(D) Uterosacral ligament

Correct Answer: B

32. The placenta is derived from :
(A) Trophoblast
(B) Hypoblast
(C) Morula
(D) Epiblast

Correct Answer: A

33. Antidote for Magnesium sulphate is :
(A) Atropine sulphate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potassium chloride
(D) Calcium gluconate

Correct Answer: D

34. Deep transverse arrest can occur in this position :
(A) Right sacroanterior
(B) Right occipitoposterior
(C) Left mentoanterior
(D) Left sacroposterior

Correct Answer: B

35. Superficial oedema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue arond umbilicus is :
(A) Stallworthy sign
(B) Bagel sign
(C) Cullen’s sign
(D) Spalding sign

Correct Answer: C

36. B Lynch suture is applied in :
(A) Post partum haemorrhage
(B) Hysterectomy
(C) Episiotomy
(D) Antepartum haemorrhage

Correct Answer: A

37. Following drugs are used for ovulation induction except :
(A) Clomiphene citrate
(B) Metformin
(C) Gonadotrophins
(D) Danazol

Correct Answer: D

38. What is the ratio of chest compression to ventilation while resuscitating new born?
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 5 : 1
(D) 4 : 1

Correct Answer: B

39. Transformation zone is closely associated with :
(A) Chronic cervicitis
(B) Endometriosis
(C) Cervical cancer
(D) Endometrial cancer

Correct Answer: C

40. The following are the components of Bishops score except :
(A) Station of presenting part
(B) Foetal heart rate
(C) Cervical dilatation
(D) Effacement of cervix

Correct Answer: B

41. The recommended caloric requirement of 1 year old child is :
(A) 1000 kcal/day
(B) 1100 kcal/day
(C) 1200 kcal/day
(D) 1300 kcal/day

Correct Answer: A

42. An under developed small mandible is a characteristic feature of :
(A) Down syndrome
(B) Prader-Willi syndrome
(C) Cri-do-chat syndrome
(D) Pierre Robin syndrome

Correct Answer: D

43. Which among the following statement is not true regarding the care of a normal new-born?
(A) All babies should receive vitamin K prophylaxis
(B) Mother shouldn’t be informed of the danger signals
(C) Breast feeding is initiated as soon as possible
(D) Initial immunisation should be given before discharge

Correct Answer: B

44. The cranial suture found between two parietal bones is :
(A) Frontal suture
(B) Coronal suture
(C) Sagittal suture
(D) Lambdoid suture

Correct Answer: C

45. Pasteurised culture negative human milk can be preserved in human milk bank for a period of :
(A) 2 – 4 months
(B) 4 – 6 months
(C) 6 – 8 months
(D) 8 – 10 months

Correct Answer: B

46. A child can draw a complete triangle at :
(A) 2 Years
(B) 3 Years
(C) 4 Years
(D) 5 Years

Correct Answer: D

47. Which among the following is seen in Marasmus, but not in Kwashiorkor?
(A) Oedema
(B) Fatty changes in liver
(C) Good appetite
(D) Anaemia

Correct Answer: C

48. Colic’s pain, vomiting, red currant jelly stools and palpable lump per abdomen are diagnostic features of :
(A) Hernia and triangulation
(B) Intestinal atresia
(C) Stricture or stenosis of intestine
(D) Intussusception

Correct Answer: D

49. Pancreatic insufficiency, neutropenia, metaphyseal dyschondroplasia and growth retardation are characteristic features of :
(A) Shwachman Syndrome
(B) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
(C) Di George Syndrome
(D) Holt-Oram Syndrome

Correct Answer: A

50. Which among the following is a freeze sensitive vaccine?
(A) BCG
(B) OPV
(C) DPT
(D) Measles

Correct Answer: C

51. In the pathogenesis of Alzheimers Disease, the initial pathological event is :
(A) Deposition of beta-amyloid
(B) Formation of senile plaque
(C) Formation of neurofibrillary tangles
(D) Degeneration of neuron

Correct Answer: A

52. A client with borderline personality disorder, tend to idealize a friend as perfect at the start of the relationship. But at the first disappointment, the client suddenly considers the friend as a cheater. The defense mechanism used is :
(A) Dissociation
(B) Displacement
(C) Undoing
(D) Splitting

Correct Answer: D

53. An excitatory neurotransmitter in high level can excite a neuron to such a extend that the cells die. This property often referred to as excitotoxicity is associated with :
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Glutamate
(C) Dopamine
(D) Epinephrine

Correct Answer: B

54. A Forensic mental health nurse assist the law enforcement officers on the scene, assess the mental status of perpetuator, participate in critique of the incident and provide a link to mental health agency. This role is referred to as :
(A) Consultant
(B) Hostage Negotiator
(C) Forensic Nurse Examiner
(D) Criminal Profiler

Correct Answer: B

55. A nurse must possess certain qualities to initiate and maintain therapeutic relationship. The following are the action-oriented conditions for facilitative nurse patient relationship except :
(A) Catharsis
(B) Role playing
(C) Empathy
(D) Confrontation

Correct Answer: C

56. When administering medication, the nurse needs to assess patient’s response to medication. The nurse uses the following rating scale for assessment of Neuroleptic induced Parkinsonism for patient receiving antipsychotic
(A) Simpson Angus Rating Scale
(B) Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale
(C) Clinical Global Impressions Scale
(D) Toronto Side effect Scale

Correct Answer: A

57. A mental health nurse works in a community or home along with other team members to provide unlimited medical, psychosocial and rehabilitative services to adults with severe mental illness. This type of community intervention is referred as :
(A) Traditional Mental Health Care
(B) Multisystem therapy
(C) Case Management
(D) Assertive community therapy

Correct Answer: D

58. A client who has recently diagnosed to have cancer, says that the investigations are wrong and it can’t happen to him. The nurse who provides care to this client recognize this as an :
(A) Appraisal focused coping
(B) Anticipatory coping
(C) Problem focused coping
(D) Emotion focused coping

Correct Answer: D

59. A client with mania makes a comment “The nurse during day shift did not allow me to go out of the ward. You are such a nice person, who is very loving and caring, I know you will definitely allow me”. The new assigned nurse also did not allow him to go out. Here the behaviour of the nurse is based on the principle that
(A) Consistency is to be maintained
(B) Avoid unnecessary increase in patient anxiety
(C) Maintain realistic nurse patient relationship
(D) Use self-understanding as a therapeutic tool

Correct Answer: A

60. A client presented with a condition in which a thought never entertained before is incorrectly regarded as a repetition of a previous thought. The nurse recognises that it is :
(A) Jamais vu
(B) Deja entendu
(C) Deja pense
(D) Deja vu

Correct Answer: C

61. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect :
(A) True positive
(B) True negative
(C) False positive
(D) False negative

Correct Answer: B

62. Causal association of factors can be revealed by :
(A) Case control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Cross sectional study
(D) Experimental study

Correct Answer: A

63. Ratio of the incidence of the disease among exposed and the incidence of the disease among non-exposed is called :
(A) Population attributable risk
(B) Odds ratio
(C) Relative risk
(D) Attributable risk

Correct Answer: C

64. Corpulence index means :
(A) Measurement of obesity
(B) Measurement of hemoglobin
(C) Measurement of blood glucose
(D) Measurement of blood pressure

Correct Answer: A

65. The term tracking of blood pressure refers to :
(A) 24 hr monitoring of bp for every week
(B) Follow up of bp over a period of years from early childhood into adult life
(C) Control of bp by medication
(D) Monitoring bp daily for one month

Correct Answer: B

66. In cold chain process, the walk-in coolers stores vaccine upto :
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 9 months

Correct Answer: B

67. The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a given year is called :
(A) Birth rate
(B) Gross reproduction rate
(C) Total fertility rate
(D) General fertility rate

Correct Answer: D

68. The purpose of Sentinel surveillance is to :
(A) Establish natural history of disease
(B) Detect the total number of cases of a disease in a community
(C) Identifying the missing cases in a community
(D) Plan intervention

Correct Answer: C

69. The simplest test widely used in India for the diagnosis of Kala-azar is :
(A) Antigen test
(B) CB-NAAT
(C) Line Probe Assay
(D) Aldehyde test of Napier

Correct Answer: D

70. Management technique which makes more detailed planning & more comprehensive supervision is called :
(A) Programme evaluation and review technique
(B) Critical path method
(C) Input out analysis
(D) Management by objectives

Correct Answer: A

71. To which of the four levels of Miller’s pyramid does OSCE conform to?
(A) know how
(B) does
(C) shows how
(D) knows

Correct Answer: C

72. To which of the following domains does nondiscursive communication belong to?
(A) affective domain
(B) psychomotor domain
(C) communicative domain
(D) cognitive domain

Correct Answer: B

73. Chief exponents of pragmatism
 (i) Herbert Spencer
 (ii) Arnold Barkley
 (iii) John Dewey
 (iv) William James
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)

Correct Answer: C

74. Programmed learning is based on :
(A) Behavioral learning theory
(B) Cognitive learning theory
(C) Social learning theory
(D) Moral development theory

Correct Answer: A

75. What does Lewin’s Field theory purpose?
(A) Children move through four different stages of learning
(B) Individual’s knowledge acquisition can be directly related to observing others
(C) Mental growth occurs by integrating simpler concepts into higher level concepts
(D) Behaviour is the result of individual and environment

Correct Answer: D

76. Which among the following is the most appropriate instructional strategy that helps a learner to link something new and seemingly unfamiliar, to something already understood :
(A) interleaving technique
(B) socratic questioning
(C) interactive simulation
(D) tutorial instruction

Correct Answer: B

77. Ipsative assessment refers to :
(A) Self assessment
(B) Norm referenced assessment
(C) Criterion referenced assessment
(D) Authentic assessment

Correct Answer: A

78. Cathartic theory of education deals with :
(A) purification of student’s spirit
(B) cleaning up of school premises
(C) release of negative emotions
(D) ensuring success in student’s career

Correct Answer: C

79. The spearman brown prophecy formula relates to :
(A) difficulty index of test item
(B) discriminating power of test item
(C) validity of test
(D) reliability of test

Correct Answer: D

80. Which of the following statements is false about counselling?
(A) It is preventive
(B) It operates at emotional level
(C) Its focus is not on solution to the problem but on understanding of the problem
(D) It concentrates on personal problems and social issues

Correct Answer: A

81. Role of devil’s advocate in a team is to :
(A) reduce loss, theft and pilferage
(B) reduce group think
(C) reduce turnover of employees
(D) reduce employee absentism

Correct Answer: B

82. Which among the following statements are false about Japanese Management style?
(A) Stands for lifetime employment
(B) Implicit control measures are employed
(C) Hierarchical in nature
(D) Collective decision making

Correct Answer: C

83. According to McGregor which among the following statement are true?
(i) theory X leader believes that subordinates are extrinsically motivated
(ii) theory X leader believes that subordinates are intrinsically motivated
(iii) theory Y leader believes that subordinates are intrinsically motivated
(iv) theory Y leader believes that subordinates are extrinsically motivated
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iv)
(C) (i) only
(D) (ii) only

Correct Answer: A

84. In six sigma model, number of acceptable errors is :
(A) 0.34 per one million occurrences
(B) 0.43 per one million occurrences
(C) 4.3 per one million occurrences
(D) 3.4 per one million occurrences

Correct Answer: D

85. The specification of contents, methods and relationships of jobs in order to satisfy technological and organisational requirements as well as the social and personal requirements of the job holder is :
(A) Job analysis
(B) Job design
(C) Job description
(D) Job specification

Correct Answer: B

86. Four fifths rule is connected with :
(A) Labour turnover analysis
(B) Internal transfer
(C) Inventory turnover ratio
(D) Adverse impact in selection process

Correct Answer: D

87. Job shadowing is connected with :
(A) Work assessment
(B) Apprenticeship
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job descriptive index

Correct Answer: B

88. Which among the following increases as group size increases?
(A) Job satisfaction
(B) Group cohesiveness
(C) Social loafing
(D) Group interaction

Correct Answer: C

89. Formula for calculating realistic time frame for project completion using PERT (‘o’ – optimistic time, ‘m’ – most likely time; ‘p’ – pessimistic time) :


Correct Answer: A

90. Inventory shrinkage cost refers to :
(A) selling obsolete stock
(B) reduction in resale value
(C) managing frequency of ordering
(D) cost of pilferage

Correct Answer: D

91. Best strategy for improving non performing worker :
(A) coaching
(B) mentoring
(C) training
(D) counselling

Correct Answer: B

92. —————— is appropriate for the development of an employee who wants to take an additional responsibility.
(A) providing negative feedback
(B) offering ostentations living conditions
(C) giving stretch assignments
(D) all of the above

Correct Answer: C

93. Gaussian distribution refers to :
(A) normal distribution
(B) binomial distribution
(C) poission distribution
(D) continuous uniform distribution

Correct Answer: A

94. Formula for Standard Error of Mean (SEM) (SD = Standard Deviation ; N = Sample Size) :


 Correct Answer:D


95. An idea or image specifically invented for a new research, usually abstract in nature :
(A) concept
(B) stimulus
(C) construct
(D) variable

Correct Answer: C

96. Process by which dominant social groups impose their values and beliefs on others :
(A) cultural globalisation
(B) cultural hegemony
(C) cultural materialism
(D) cultural domains

Correct Answer: B

97. A cultural theory that challenges binary notions of sexuality and instead suggests that sexualities are cultural constructs :
(A) Queer theory
(B) Conflict theory
(C) Social functional theory
(D) Symbolic interaction theory

Correct Answer: A

98. The event or perceived event that triggers a reaction in which people become excited to the point of losing their critical thinking abilities and acting irrationally :
(A) violence
(B) antisocial behaviour
(C) terrorism
(D) mass hysteria

Correct Answer: D

99. A faculty heuristic in which you fixate on a single aspect of a problem to find a solution :
(A) negativism
(B) hindsight
(C) anchoring bias
(D) representative bias

Correct Answer: C

100. Social readjustment rating scale is designed to :
(A) measure stress
(B) coping strategies
(C) self harming behaviours
(D) depression

Correct Answer: A

 

 

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