Auxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Code: 047/2022  (A)

 Name of Post: Auxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II

 Department: Insurance 

Medical Service & Health/ Municipal Common Service

Cat. No: 366/2021 & 775/2021

 Date of Test: 04.05.2022

1. Health is viewed as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment in
(A) Biomedical Concept
(B) Ecological Concept
(C) Psychosocial Concept
(D) Holistic Concept

2. The efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful life style is
(A) Primordial Prevention
(B) Primary Prevention
(C) Secondary Prevention
(D) Tertiary Prevention

3. Mantoux test is used to determine the following disease
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Leprosy
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Typhoid

4. Rice water appearance of stool is seen in
(A) Cholera
(B) Amoebiasis
(C) Giardiasis
(D) Typhoid

5. The fever ascends in a stepladder fashion is seen in
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Meningitis
(C) Malaria
(D) Typhoid

6. An eligible couple refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age, which generally assumed to lie between the age of
(A) 18 and 25
(B) 18 and 45
(C) 15 and 25
(D) 15 and 45

7. The following are the characteristics of a community, except
(A) The community is not a contagious geographic area
(B) It is composed of people living together
(C) People cooperate to satisfy their basic needs
(D) There are common organizations in the community

8. The process that can help people understand better and deal with their problems and communicate better with those with whom they are emotionally involved is
(A) Education
(B) Motivation
(C) Persuasion
(D) Counselling

9. The Child Marriage Restraint Act in India is an example of
(A) Regulatory approach
(B) Service approach
(C) Health education approach
(D) Primary healthcare approach

10. The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by receiver
(A) Reinforcement
(B) Credibility
(C) Comprehension
(D) Motivation

11. Koplik's spots are typical feature of
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Herpes zoster
(C) Small pox
(D) Measles

12. An Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for a population of
(A) 400
(B) 600
(C) 800
(D) 1000

13. The policy reaffirms the commitment of the government towards target-free approach in administering family planning services
(A) National health policy
(B) National population policy
(C) National nutrition policy
(D) National policy for children

14. World Population Day is observed every year on
(A) 11th July
(B) 28th July
(C) 5th June
(D) 14th June

15. A sub-centre covers the population of
(A) 2000-5000
(B) 3000-5000

(C) 10000-20000
(D) 20000-30000

16. The causative organism of mumps is
(A) Paramyxovirus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella-Zoster Virus
(D) Arbovirus

17. For effective group discussion, the group should consist of the following number of members
(A) 2-5
(B) 6-12
(C) 10-20
(D) 15-25

18. Vitamin D deficiency causes:
(A) Rickets
(B) Night blindness
(C) Beriberi
(D) Pellagra

19. Following are larval control measures except:
(B) Paris green
(C) Gambusia fish
(D) Intermittent irrigation

20. Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are:
(A) Anopheles
(B) Culex
(C) Aedes
(D) Mansonia

21. Richest source of Vitamin C is:
(A) Carrot
(B) Milk
(C) Amla
(D) Green leafy vegetables

22. More frequent form of protein energy malnutrition in India:
(A) Anemia
(B) Xerophthalmia
(C) Marasmus
(D) Option A & C

23. Characteristic of a mentally healthy person includes:
(A) Feels satisfied with himself
(B) Well adjusted
(C) Has good self control
(D) All of the above

24. Which among the following is the cause of maladjustment?
(A) Frustration
(B) Tension
(C) Poverty
(D) All of the above

25. Health problems of elderly persons include:
(A) Failure of special senses
(B) Asthma
(C) Option A & B
(D) None

26. Sanitary latrines can decrease incidence of all except:
(A) Poliomyelitis
(B) Mumps
(C) Diarrhoea
(D) Cholera

27. Community participation includes involvement of a community in:
(A) Disinfection of a well
(B) Construction of a small scale soak pit
(C) Safe disposal of excreta and animal waste
(D) All of the above

28. Safe water criteria include:
(A) Free from pathogens
(B) Free from colour
(C) Free from odour
(D) All of the above

29. All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except:
(A) Composting
(B) Land treatment
(C) Oxidation ponds
(D) River outfall

30. Science of health and its maintenance is:
(A) Sanitation
(B) Hygiene                                                                                                                                                   (C) Asepsis
(D) None

31. Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of:
(A) E.coli
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Staphylococcus
(D) Option B & C

32. Following are common problems of mouth except:
(A) Gingivitis
(B) Halitosis
(C) Periodontal disease
(D) Acne

33. Aedes aegypti transmits the following disease except:
(A) Japanese encephalitis
(B) Yellow fever
(C) Malaria
(D) Dengue fever

34. Micronutrients are:
(A) Proteins
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Vitamins
(D) Fats

35. Modifiable risk factors in Coronary artery disease are all except:
(A) Age
(B) Hypertension
(C) Obesity
(D) Smoking

36. Emergency care or treatment given to an ill or injured person before regular medical aid:
(A) Primary prevention
(B) Rehabilitation
(C) Immunization
(D) First aid

37. Primary prevention of Hypertension includes:
(A) Weight reduction
(B) Exercise promotion
(C) Reduction of salt intake
(D) All of the above

38. Drugs which cause expulsion of gas from the stomach and intestine:
(A) Cathartics
(B) Emetics
(C) Carminatives
(D) Antiemetics

39. Following is not a risk factor for development of diabetes mellitus:
(A) High intake of vitamin-A
(B) Excessive intake of fat
(C) Excessive intake of alcohol
(D) Excessive intake of carbohydrates

40. Which of the following should be done to avoid stroke?
(A) Regular exercise
(B) Reduce the amount of fat in diet
(C) Low salt diet
(D) All of the above

41. Which among the following sequence of events is true?
(A) Disease – Impairment – Disability – Handicap
(B) Impairment – Disability – Handicap – Disease
(C) Disability – Handicap – Disease – Impairment
(D) Handicap – Disease – Impairment – Disability

42. TB Multidrug regimen is given to:
(A) Prevent side effects
(B) Prevent resistance
(C) Prevent pneumonia
(D) All of the above

43. The best criteria for TB diagnosis is:
(A) Chest pain
(B) Coughing
(C) Sputum positive
(D) Breathlessness

44. The normal body temperature for an adult is:
(A) 98.6 degree F
(B) 98.6 degree C
(C) 95.8 degree F
(D) 95.8 degree C

45. Definition of health given by WHO includes the following dimentions except:
(A) Physical
(B) Mental
(C) Social
(D) Emotional

46. Immunization is:
(A) Secondary prevention
(B) Primary prevention
(C) Tertiary prevention
(D) All of the above

47. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
(A) Tetanus
(B) Anti rabies vaccine
(C) Rubella
(D) Hepatitis

48. At primary health centre level, vaccines are stored in:
(A) Deep freezer
(B) Cold box
(C) Ice lined refrigerator
(D) Cold room

49. Waste sharps should be disposed in:
(A) Black bag
(B) White bag
(C) Red bag
(D) Yellow bag

50. The entry and development of an infectious agent in the body of man is:
(A) Contamination
(B) Disease
(C) Infestation
(D) Epidemic

51. Immunity which an individual develops as a result of infection or by immunization is:
(A) Passive immunity
(B) Active immunity
(C) Herd immunity
(D) All of the above

52. Good sample of bleaching powder contains ________ per cent of "available chlorine"
(A) 38%
(B) 40%
(C) 33%
(D) 36%

53. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is:
(A) Feco oral route
(B) Sexual transmission
(C) Option A & B
(D) None

54. The first step in the control of an infectious disease in a community is:
(A) Isolation
(B) Surveillance
(C) Disinfection
(D) Early diagnosis

55. Population covered by a Subcenter is:
(A) 7000-9000
(B) 3000-5000
(C) 1000-2000
(D) 6000-7000

56. Anti-malaria month is observed every year in the month of:
(A) July
(B) April
(C) June
(D) May

57. Knowledge updation in health care system:
(A) Improves self development of staff
(B) Understand the scope of career advancement
(C) Improves ability in writing reports
(D) All of the above

58. Under National program for prevention of nutritional blindness, children at nine
months is given Vitamin A in the dose of:
(A) 1 Lakh IU
(B) 1.5 Lakh IU
(C) 2 Lakh IU
(D) 3 Lakh IU

59. Records which are kept at Primary health centre:
(A) Maternal and child health records
(B) Eligible couple records
(C) Birth and death registers
(D) All of the above

60. Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to:
(A) All children between 0-5 years of age
(B) All children between the age group of 0-1 years
(C) All children in the age group of 0-2 years
(D) All children between 0-3 years of age

61. The alternate term for growth chart:
(A) Nutritional chart
(B) Weight chart
(C) Height chart
(D) Road to health chart

62. The common habit disorder where the child grinds the teeth
(A) Bruxism
(B) Stuttering
(C) Tics
(D) Trichotillomania

63. The characteristic play of school age children:
(A) Parallel play
(B) Cooperative play
(C) Associative play
(D) Solitary play

64. The body mass index in children is calculated as:
(A) Weight(g)/[Height(m)]2
(B) Weight(kg)/[Height(m)]2
(C) Weight(g)/[Height(cm)]2
(D) Weight(kg)/[Height(cm)]

65. The thermodynamic label put on vaccine vial indicating the potency of vaccine is termed as:

66. Vitamin A is otherwise known as:
(A) Retinol
(B) Biotin
(C) Cholecalciferol
(D) niacin

67. In children with diarrhoeal diseases, the estimated fluid loss in severe dehydration:
(A) >50ml/kg
(B) 50-100ml/kg
(C) 75ml/kg
(D) >100ml/kg

68. The national maternity benefit scheme, modified in April 2005 as a new scheme is known as

69. IMNCI stands for
(A) Integrated Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness
(B) Intensive Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness
(C) Inpatient Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness
(D) Internal Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness.

70. The first legally binding international instrument to incorporate civil, cultural, economic,
political and social rights for children:
(D) UN Security Council

71. The Girl child week is observed every year throughout India during:
(A) 1st-7th August
(B) 1st-7th April
(C) 18th-24th September
(D) 15th-21st November

72. The route of administration of BCG vaccine is:
(A) Intramuscular
(B) Oral
(C) Intradermal
(D) Subcutaneous

73. In physiology of lactation, milk secretion reflex is known as:
(A) Oxytocin reflex
(B) Prolactin reflex
(C) Rooting reflex
(D) Sucking reflex

74. The cell produced by fertilization is
(A) Gamete
(B) Embryo
(C) Foetus
(D) Zygote

75. Common type of female pelvis is
(A) Android
(B) Gynecoid
(C) Anthropoid
(D) Platypelloid

76. Placenta produces ________
(A) Prolactin
(B) Oxytocin
(D) Estrogen & Progesterone

77. How much weight gain is normal during pregnancy?
(A) 8 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C)  12 kg
(D) 14 kg

78. Commonest cause of non-engagement at term in primi is
(B) Hydramnios
(C) Brow presentation
(D) Breech

79. Inflammation of ovary is termed as
(A) Oophoritis
(B) Hydrocele
(C) Salpingitis
(D) Oophorectomy

80. Bandl's ring is also called
(A) Constriction ring
(B) Schroeder's ring
(C) Retraction ring
(D) Cervical dystocia

81. The perineal tear should be repaired
(A) 24 hrs. later
(B) 48 hrs. later
(C) 36 hrs. later
(D) immediately

82. What is the cause of postpartum depression?
(A) Lack of Sleep
(B) Vitamin deficiencies
(C) Social stress 
(D) An extreme drop in hormone level  

83. Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage
(A) Bleeding disorders
(B) Abruptio placenta
(C) Placenta previa
(D) Atonic uterus

84. Majority of abortions take place between
(A) 8-12 wks.
(B) 12-16 wks.
(C) 16-20 wks.
(D) Later than 20 weeks

85. The acronym ADHD stands for
(A) Attention directed Hyperactivity disorder
(B) Attitude Dependent Hyperactivity Disorder
(C) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(D) Attention directing hypothalamic density.

86. The most common indication for Hysterectomy
(A) Uterine leiomyomata
(C) Uterine prolapse
(D) Adenomyosis

87. Mammography should be done annually in women of
(A) 50 yrs. and above
(B) 60 yrs. and above
(C) 40 yrs. and above
(D) 30 yrs. and above

88. APGAR assessment is interpreted by means of
(A) Scoring
(B) Comparing with a standard table
(C) Using a scale of wellness
(D) Consultation with a family psychologist

89. Domestic violence involves
(A) Physical violence only
(B) Mental violence only
(C) Violence inside the house
(D) All of the above

90. A tumor associated with HIV infected men
(A) prostate carcinoma
(B) liver cell carcinoma
(C) osteosarcoma
(D) Kaposi's sarcoma

91. Which is the most Common STI caused by bacteria?
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis                                                                                                                                                (C)Chlamydia
(D) Genital warts

92. Women who are trying to conceive should boost their intake of
(A) Nickel
(B) Lycopene
(C) Potassium
(D) Folic acid

93. Which is the most populous country in the world?
(A) India
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) Russia

94. Number of antenatal visit should be at least
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

95. When did Janani Suraksha Yojana launched?
(A) 2000
(B) 2005
(C) 2010
(D) 2015

96. A Creamy substance found on skin of newborn after birth
(A) Meconium
(B) Wharton's jelly
(C) Vernix Caseosa
(D) Lanugo

97. Premature separation of placenta from uterus
(A) placenta previa
(B) habitual abortion
(C) placental abruption
(D) vesicular mole

98. Which of the following is thought to be a cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?
(A) underlying infection
(B) overeating
(C) high levels of circulating HCG
(D) psychological issues

99. Normal weight of uterus
(A) 20 gm
(B) 40 gm
(C) 60 gm
(D) 80 gm

100. Which is the symptom of placenta previa?
(A) bright red painless vaginal bleeding
(B) quickening
(C) nausea and vomiting
(D) dizziness.

No comments:

Post a Comment