Nurse Grade II (NCA- Muslim) & Staff Nurse Grade II (Sr for SC/ST) Question and Answer Key

 Question Code: 048/2022  (A)

 Name of Post: Nurse Grade II (NCA- Muslim) & Staff Nurse Grade II (Sr for SC/ST)

 Department: Homoeopathy & Health Service

 Cat. No: 244/2021 & 520/2021

 Date of Test: 05.05.2022

 1. Which among the following is not true about surfactant?
(A) Lowers the surface tension in the alveoli
(B) Increases the compliance of lungs & reduces the work of breathing
(C) Decreases the compliance of lungs & reduces the work of breathing
(D) Prevents collapse of the alveoli

2. Which among the following is the largest single mass of lymphoid tissue in the body?
(A) Thymus
(B) Tonsil
(C) Spleen
(D) Liver

3. Which among the following is a hinge joint?
(A) Elbow joint
(B) Hip joint
(C) Wrist joint
(D) Atlantoaxial joint

4. Which among the following area of the brain is concerned with interpretation of  speech?
(A) Parietal lobe
(B) Occipital lobe
(C) Broca's area
(D) Wernicke's area

5. Which among the following is the normal plasma osmolality?
(A) 280-295 mosm/L
(B) 380-395 mosm/L
(C) 280-295 mEq/L
(D) 380-395 mEq/L

6. Presence of disease, constantly in a particular area is known as
(A) Pandemic
(B) Endemic
(C) Epidemic
(D) Iatrogenic

7. Which among the following is an arthropod-borne disease?
(A) Tetanus
(B) Rabies
(C) Lieshmaniasis
(D) Relapsing fever

8. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify the organism
(A) Streptococci
(B) Pneumococci
(C) Salmonella
(D) Mycobacterium Leprae

9. Which is the principal site of the respiratory enzymes of bacteria?
(A) Mesosomes
(B) Cytoplasmic membrane
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Protoplasm

10. Which among the following is an example of cationic surface active agents?
(A) Soap
(B) Tego compounds
(D) Oleic acid

11. A man consumes alcohol, but he teaches about the benefits of abstinence from alcohol. The defence mechanism used is
(A) Rationalization
(B) Reaction formation
(C) Sublimation
(D) Substitution

12. The nursing intervention that is inappropriate for a 73-year-old woman who is having dementia is to
(A) Provide unconditional regard
(B) Provide rest periods
(C) Provide an environment with high stimuli
(D) Avoid unfamiliar situations

13. Which among the following is a complication of cannabis characterized by lethargy,
apathy, loss of interest, amnesia and reduced drive?
(A) Hemp insanity
(B) Amnestic syndrome
(C) Amotivational syndrome
(D) Asperger's syndrome

14. When a girl is told about the death of her mother, she shows no emotional expression,
then the range of affect is
(A) Blunted
(B) Inappropriate
(C) Constricted
(D) Flat

15. A teacher presents the subject using effective and interesting teaching method and
thus the learner develops a positive attitude towards that subject. This is based on
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Operant Conditioning
(C) Trial and Error Learning
(D) Insightful conditioning

16. According to Sigmund Freud, if a person exhibits homosexuality the fixation has occurred in developmental stage
(A) Oral stage
(B) Anal stage
(C) Genital stage
(D) Phallic stage

17. A client is aware of the adverse effects of smoking, but he continues the habit. Here he is having
(A) Self-perception
(B) Counter attitude
(C) Cognitive dissonance
(D) Cognitive consonance

18. A person has good knowledge about his own emotions and is often involved in self-reflection. According to Howard Gardner, he seems to have predominantly
(A) Naturalistic intelligence
(B) Spatial intelligence
(C) Kinesthetic intelligence
(D) Intrapersonal intelligence

19. Which among the following is an example of secondary motive?
(A) Affiliation motive
(B) Hunger motive
(C) Aspiration motive
(D) Achievement motive

20. Provision of antenatal care to mother is a measure for preventing mental illness. This approach is
(A) Secondary prevention
(B) Primary prevention
(C) Tertiary prevention
(D) Primordial prevention

21. The nursing intervention that would be inappropriate for client who is severely withdrawn
(A) Direct questions to the patient
(B) Allow the patient time to respond
(C) Use simple, concrete words
(D) Encourage activities that raise self esteem

22. Two persons of different country desire to marry and they learn own culture as well as other groups culture. This type of socialization is referred as
(A) Primary socialisation
(B) Developmental socialisation
(C) Anticipatory socialisation
(D) Resocialisation

23. When interaction between people occurs, usually there will be integration of attitude and goals. But this process of assimilation is hindered by
(A) Education
(B) Dominance
(C) Amalgamation
(D) Toleration

24. The child learns and achieves competence in his culture and internalizes them. This process is known as
(A) Acculturisation
(B) Enculturisation
(C) Ethnocentrism
(D) Accommodation

25. When given a proverb "an apple a day keeps the doctor away", the client replies that if we have apple, doctor will not come. This type of thinking is
(A) Concrete thinking
(B) Conceptual thinking
(C) Reflective thinking
(D) Creative thinking

26. A female presents with the sudden onset of paralysis of the upper extremity. Detailed physical examination does not reveal any neurological or medical condition. The nurse should suspect this as a case of
(A) Somatization disorder
(B) Conversion disorder
(C) Somatoform disorder
(D) Body dysmorphic disorder

27. During the working phase of nurse-patient relationship, the patient exhibits irrational behavior and remains silent during conversation. This indicates that he is showing
(A) Transference
(B) Counter transference
(C) Resistance
(D) Reflection

28. Which lobe of brain is responsible for causing illusion and auditory hallucination?
(A) Frontal lobe
(B) Occipital lobe
(C) Parietal lobe
(D) Temporal lobe

29. When giving care to a client experiencing a mild level of acute anxiety, the inappropriatenursing intervention is
(A) Use nonverbal language
(B) Evaluate the past coping mechanism
(C) Closing off the outlet of communication
(D) Encourage problem solving

30. When communicating with a client experiencing hallucination, the appropriate nursing intervention is
(A) Ask the patient directly about hallucination
(B) Negate the patient's experience
(C) Speak to patient in low voice
(D) React to the hallucination

31. The nerve that helps in the lateral movement of eye is
(A) Oculomotor
(B) Abducen
(C) Trochlear
(D) Optic

32. The best position in detecting the murmurs of heart is
(A) Left lateral recumbent
(B) Supine
(C) Right lateral recumbent
(D) Sitting

33. The temperature which the maximum vasoconstriction occurs while applying cold
(A) 15°C
(B) 20°C
(C) 10°C
(D) 25°C

34. Which among the following statements is incorrect while assessing fluid volume deficit?
(A) Acute loss of 0.5 kg represents fluid loss of 500 ml
(B) Decrease in body temperature if no infection persists
(C) Decrease in systolic blood pressure exceeding 20 mm of Hg from lying to sitting position
(D) Decrease in systolic blood pressure exceeding 10 mm of Hg from lying to sitting position.

35. The best site for assessing the tissue turgor is
(A) Forehead
(B) Forearm
(C) Foot
(D) Upper arm

36. Stage III pressure ulcer is manifested as
(A) Areddened area with abrasions and blisters
(B) An open lesion with full thickness tissue loss and visible subcutaneous
(C) An open lesion with full thickness tissue with exposed muscle
(D) An open lesion with full thickness tissue loss with slough covered on the base of ulcer

37. The best position in assessing the blood pressure in lower extremity is
(A) Supine position with extended knees
(B) Supine position with flexed knees
(C) Prone position
(D) Side lying position

38. Which among the following intervention is incorrect while administering blood transfusion?
(A) Complete the transfusion within 4 hours
(B) Prime the administration set with Normal Saline
(C) Start the blood transfusion within 30 minutes of release from blood bank
(D) Assess for transfusion reaction 15 minutes after the infusion is started.

39. Which among the following is the clinical manifestations of Hypomagnesemia?
(A) Neuromuscular irritability, hypertension & mood changes
(B) Neuromuscular irritability, hypotension & muscle weakness
(C) Muscle weakness, hypotension & depressed respiration
(D) Muscle weakness, hypertension & depressed respiration

40. Which among the following statements is incorrect while administering oil retention enema?
(A) Instruct the patient to retain the enema for at least 30 minutes
(B) A small rectal tube is used in oil retention enema
(C) Warming the enema makes the defecation easier
(D) A cleansing enema is often ordered after an oil retention enema.

41. Maze procedure is done for
(A) Atrial Fibrillation
(B) Ventricular Fibrillation
(C) Ventricular Tachycardia
(D) Sick Sinus Syndrome

42. The condition in which the lining of oesophageal mucosa is altered is called
(A) Nutcracker oesophagus
(B) Jackhammer oesophagus
(C) Barrett's oesophagus
(D) Spastic oesophagus

43. The excessive pressure on the branch of medial plantar nerve between the third and fourth toe causes
(A) Hallux Vagus
(B) Hammer Toe
(C) Morton's Neuroma
(D) Desmoid Tumour

44. A patient is prepared for intravesical administration of BCG. The nurse should advise
the following measures to the patient except
(A) Fluid restriction for 4 hours before the procedure
(B) Not to move or change the position during the treatment
(C) Encourage the intake of fluid after 2 hours of instillation
(D) Avoid voiding for 2 hours after instillation

45. The ECG finding in hypercalcemia is
(A) Shortened QT interval and widened T wave
(B) Prolonged QT interval and widened T wave
(C) Shortened QT interval and narrowed T wave
(D) Prolonged QT interval and narrowed T wave

46. The most common form of skin cancer is
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Stratified cell carcinoma

47. A light gray ring around the iris due to the deposition of cholesterol is
(A) Xanthelasma
(B) Xanthochromia
(C) Arcus juvenilis
(D) Arcus senilis

48. A tracheostomy is a surgical opening made between the
(A) First and second tracheal ring
(B) Second and third tracheal ring
(C) First and third tracheal ring
(D) Third and fourth tracheal ring

49. Which among the following condition is contraindicated for Non Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation?
(A) Obstructive sleep apnoea
(B) Acute pulmonary oedema
(C) Respiratory failure
(D) Respiratory arrest

50. Cholesteatoma is
(A) Cyst in the gall bladder
(B) Deposition of cholesterol under the skin
(C) Cyst in the middle ear
(D) Deposition of cholesterol on eyelid

51. A study which is usually undertaken to obtain additional evidence to refute or support the existence of an association between suspected cause and disease is
(A) Case Control Study
(B) Cohort Study
(C) Field Trials
(D) Randomized Controlled Trials

52. An epidemic occurring over a very wide area, crossing international boundaries, and usually affecting a large number of people is
(A) Endemic
(B) Sporadic
(C) Epornithic
(D) Pandemic

53. Ice Lined Refrigerators are to maintain a cabinet temperature between
(A) – 15°C and – 25°C
(B) – 2°C and – 8°C
(C) + 15°C and + 25°C
54. Encephalopathy is the adverse event of the following immunization
(B) Rubella
(C) Tetanus
(D) Measles

55. The peripheral outpost of the existing health delivery system in rural area is
(A) Sub Centre
(B) Primary Health Centre
(C) Community Health Centre
(D) Anganwadi

56. The following mineral is a constituent of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase present in
RBC and stomach walls                                                                                                                                 (A) zinc                                                                                                                                      
(B) Phosphorous
(C) Magnesium
(D) Calcium

57. The ex-officio secretary of the Panchayat Samiti is
(A) Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA)
(B) District Collector
(C) Block Development Officer
(D) Panchayat Secretary

58. The name of Greenish, crystalline powder is effective in killing only the anopheline mosquitoes is
(A) Paris Green
(B) Abate
(C) Malathion
(D) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)

59. The following vitamin deficiency disease is characterized by three Ds – Diarrhoea,
Dermatitis and Dementia
(A) Beriberi
(B) Pellagra
(C) Wernick's encephalopathy
(D) Megaloblastic anaemia

60. Triangular, pearly-white or yellowish, keratin build up on the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the cornea seen in
(A) Bitot's spots
(B) Corneal Xerosis
(C) Keratomalacia
(D) Night Blindness

61. The provision of care in settings with no or minimal psychological and physical distress
to children and families by care providers is _________
(A) Atraumatic care
(B) Family-centered care
(C) Individualized care
(D) Integrated care

62. The infant develops the ability to control trunk, then arms and then fingers. This is according to the principle _________
(A) Cephalocaudal development
(B) Correlated development
(C) Proximodistal development
(D) Unique development

63. Ishihara test is used for the diagnosis of _________
(A) Amblyopia
(B) Diplopia
(C) Refractive errors
(D) Colour vision

64. The components of low Osmolar oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) are _________
(A) Sodium chloride, potassium chloride, trisodium citrate, anhydrous glucose
(B) Sodium chloride, potassium chloride, potassium citrate, anhydrous glucose
(C) Sodium hydroxide, potassium chloride, potassium citrate, anhydrous glucose
(D) Sodium chloride, aluminum chloride, potassium citrate, anhydrous glucose

65. The programme launched by Government of India to strengthen and reenergise the universal immunization program was _________
(A) Swachh Bharat Mission
(B) Mission Indradhanush
(C) National Health Mission
(D) Ayushman Bharat Mission

66. The play of a hospitalised child using materials like bandages and scrubs is a ________
(A) Parallel play
(B) Onlooker play
(C) Dramatic play
(D) Solitary play

67. Which among the following are causes of sleep bruxism?
(A) Iron deficiency, hunger
(B) Calcium deficiency, stress release
(C) Sensory stimulation pleasure
(D) Stress release, pleasure

68. Ensuring adequate hydration is important in managing children with chemotherapy to _________
(A) Relieve thirst
(B) Prevent dehydration
(C) Replace blood volume
(D) Remove destroyed cell particles

69. Bruises on various body parts with varying stages of healing is a strong indicator of _________
(A) Skin cancer
(B) Impetigo
(C) Child abuse
(D) Burns

70. Failure of fusion of the maxillary process of mandible result in
(A) Cleft lip
(B) Cleft palate
(C) Choanal atresia
(D) Craniosynostosis

71. Narrowest part of fallopian tube is
(A) Ampulla
(B) Isthmus
(C) Interstitial portion
(D) Infundibulam

72. Sertoli cells secrete
(A) Relaxin
(B) Oestrogen
(C) Progesterone
(D) Inhibin

73. Administration of ergometrin is contraindicated in
(C) Preeclampsia
(D) Abortion

74. Ideal time for rupture of membrane is
(A) Before first stage of labour
(B) After full dilatation of cervix
(C) After delivery of the baby
(D) During 38 week

75. Dark brown bleeding is characteristic feature of
(A) Threatened abortion
(B) Complete abortion
(C) Cervical incompetence
(D) Missed abortion

76. Teeth and bones are usually found in
(A) Lutein cyst
(B) Dermoid cysts
(C) Mucinous cyst
(D) Serous cyst adenoma

77. There is no fixed denominator in
(A) Brow presentation
(B) Face presentation
(C) Breech presentation
(D) Shoulder presentation

78. Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy
(A) Warfarin
(B) Phenindione
(C) Heparin
(D) Coumadin

79. According to WHO, low birth weight baby is babies with birth weight less than
(A) 3000 gm
(B) 2500 gm
(C) 2000 gm
(D) 1500 gm

80. Increased FSH level in azoospermic males is suggestive of
(A) Epispadiasis
(C) Testicular atrophy
(D) Hydrocele

81. Educational philosophy which considers change as the essence of the universe
(A) Naturalism
(B) Pragmatism
(C) Idealism
(D) Electicism

82. The teaching method by which the student studies the first hand objects in their natural environment
(A) Field Trip
(B) Demonstration
(C) Roleplay
(D) Project

83. The behavioral objective model of curriculum is
(A) Process model
(B) Subject based model
(C) The problem-centered model
(D) The product model

84. Distance education is an example of
(A) Formal education
(B) Informal education
(C) Nonformal education
(D) Online education

85. The test which evaluates an individual's performance in a given situation with specific
characteristics expected in the performance.
(A) Norm referenced test
(B) Essay type test
(C) Objective type test
(D) Criterion referenced test

86. Pilot study is done to
(A) Create hypothesis
(B) Formulate objectives
(C) Draw sample for the study
(D) Test the feasibility of the research design

87. In normal distribution curve approximately 95% observations lie in
(A) Mean + 1 SD
(B) Mean + 2 SD
(C) Mean + 3 SD
(D) Mean + 4 SD

88. The test used for simultaneous comparison of more than two sample means
(A) Z test
(B) t' test
(C) Wilcoxon signed ranked test
(D) F test

89. The type of research in which there is development of theory from the available data
(A) Documentary research
(B) Grounded theory research
(C) Historical research
(D) Correlational research

90. The type of sampling using the sample members to identify other participants meeting the same inclusion criteria for the study
(A) Network sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Random sampling

91. Ethical principle of respect for non-maleficence denotes
(A) Equality and fairness
(B) Providing reality based information
(C) Fulfilling promises
(D) Avoiding harm to others.

92. Donabedians model is used in _________
(A) Quality management
(B) Problem solving
(C) Training need assessment
(D) Leadership training

93. A battery is
(A) Intentional tort
(B) Unintentional tort
(C) Negligence
(D) False imprisonment

94. Father of scientific management is
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Max Weber
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Henri Fayol

95. The budget is an example of
(A) Single use plan
(B) Procedure
(C) Policy
(D) Strategy

96. The process of measuring the product, practices, and services against best performing organization
(B) Accreditation
(C) Benchmarking
(D) Total Quality Management

97. The process of discovering and identifying the relative informations of a job is
(A) Job Evaluation
(B) Job Analysis
(C) Job Description
(D) Job Specification

98. Which among the following is not a feature of line organization?
(A) Authority flows from top to bottom
(B) Unity of command
(C) Major decisions are taken by top administration
(D) Division of work based on specialization

99. The process of negotiation between employer and a group of employees aimed at
regulating working conditions
(A) Collective bargaining
(B) Grievance redressal
(C) Discussions
(D) Bargaining

100. The type of nursing care delivery system where single nurse is responsible for the
patient care throughout his stay in the hospital
(A) Team nursing
(B) Functional method
(C) Primary nursing
(D) Case method

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