Assistant Professor in Nuclear Medicine Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Paper Code: 39/2024/OL
Category Code: 342/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Nuclear Medicine
Date of Test 06-04-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-Coordination number of a metal ligand complex is
        A:-the number of ligands in the complex
        B:-the number of metal ions in the complex
        C:-the number of unshared electron pairs
        D:-the number of oxygen atoms in the complex
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question2:-Nucleon numbers called magic numbers are
        A:-2, 4, 20, 60, 82 or 126
        B:-2, 10, 20, 50, 80 or 126
        C:-2, 8, 20, 50, 82 or 126
        D:-2, 10, 20, 50, 80 or 120
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question3:-In alpha decay, the atomic number of the parent nuclide and the mass number is reduced by
        A:-4 and 2
        B:-2 and 4
        C:-2 and 2
        D:-4 and 4
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question4:-In a Technetium radiopharmaceutical the number of states that Technetium can exist is
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question5:-The radiopharmaceuticals requiring one solvent chromatography are all except
        A:-Tc-99m DMSA
        B:-Tc-99m MAA
        C:-Tc-99m Sulphur Colloid
        D:-Tc-99m DTPA
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question6:-What instrument will you use if you have a spill of 2 mCi of I-131 in your lab?
        A:-Cutie Pie
        B:-Survey Meter
        C:-Well Counter
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-The type of collimator used in thyroid probe is
        A:-Pinhole collimator
        B:-Parallel hole collimator
        C:-Converging collimator
        D:-Flatfield collimator
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Thermal neutrons are absorbed by
        D:-Heavy water
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-For a radiopharmaceutical if Tp is < Tb, then the Te will be
        A:-Less than Tp
        B:-Less than Tb
        C:-No relation
        D:-Equal to Tp
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question10:-A kit preparation of Tc-99m which involves a transchelation reaction is
        A:-Tc-99m DMSA
        B:-Tc-99m DTPA
        C:-Tc-99m Mebrofenin
        D:-Tc-99m ECD
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-The precision of measured counts is indicated by
        B:-Standard deviation
        D:-Confidence interval
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question12:-For a count of 10,000, calculate the % uncertainity
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question13:-How closely a measurement agrees with the "True" value is called its?
        B:-Real value
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question14:-Radioactive disintegration follows a
        A:-Gaussian distribution
        B:-Poisson distribution
        C:-Random distribution
        D:-Log distribution
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question15:-Interater agreement for categorical items is measured using
        A:-Pearson correlation
        B:-Mann Whitney U Test
        C:-Wicoxon signed rank test
        D:-Cohens Kappa
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-What statistical test will you apply to determine the significance of difference between the means of two sets of data obtained from the same set of patients following a normal distribution and whether positive or negative?
        A:-One-sided Unpaired t test
        B:-Two-sided Unpaired t test
        C:-One-sided Paired t test
        D:-Two-sided Paired t test
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-For a first order process rate constant k X concentration of substance in the compartment determines
        A:-mean transit time
        C:-turnover time
        D:-steady state
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-The technique that averages local pixel values to reduce the effect of pixel-to-pixel variation is
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question19:-Nominal data from independent groups is analyzed using
        A:-Mc Nemar Test
        B:-Chi Square Test
        C:-Wilcoxon signed rank test
        D:-Friedman test
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question20:-A useful approach to determine causes of artifacts in PET and SPECT images is
        A:-MIP image
        B:-Cine image
        D:-Back projection image
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-Identify this structure(arrow)

        A:-Right lung upper lobe
        B:-Right lung apex
        C:-Azygous lobe
        D:-Azygous vein
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-Identify this structure

        D:-Globus Pallidus
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question23:- Identify the pathology on I-131 MIBG planar scan

        D:-Normal Adrenal
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-Identify the pathology on Tc-99m Mebrofenin scan

        A:-Gall bladder
        B:-Choledochal cyst
        D:-Hydatid cyst
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-Identify the structure with increased FDG uptake on PET/CT

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question26:-At the cellular level, the following components have been implicate in promoting elevated FDG uptake in the malignant cells compared to host cells except
        A:-Increased vascular flow-more tracer is available for the uptake
        B:-Increased GLUT-1 on the cellular membrane-more FDG movement into the cell
        C:-More HK 11-more FDG-6-P Production
        D:-Increased dephosphorylation of FDG-6-P and less egress of FDG activity out of the malignant cell
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question27:-An imaging radiopharmaceutical for tumor Apoptosis
        A:-18 F-MISO
        D:-62Cu ATSM
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Which of the following mechanism justifies the increased uptake of 11C methionine in cancer cells?
        C:-Hexokinase activity
        D:-Trans methylation
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-99 Tc RBC scintigraphy for the diagnosis of hepatic cavernous hemangioma
        A:-Is the most sensitive noninvasive method
        B:-Is the most specific noninvasive method
        C:-Its sensitivity does not depend upon the size of the lesion
        D:-It cannot differentiate hepatic cavernous hemangioma from matastasis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-Critical organ for 201 Thallium is
        A:-Gal bladder
        C:-Small intestine
        D:-Large intestine
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question31:-Which of the following radioisotope is recommended for the labeling of monoclonal antibodies for PET imaging?
        A:-68 Ga
        B:-124 I
        C:-18 F
        D:-11 C
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question32:-On myocardial perfusion scan which of the following factors can be considered an advantage of 99m Tc tetrofosmin over 99m Tc Sestamibi?
        A:-Higher myocardial uptake
        B:-Rapid hepatic clearance
        C:-Lower pulmonary uptake
        D:-Lower price
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question33:-What is the most appropriate radiopharmaceutical for myocardial perfusion with PET?
        A:-18F FDG
        B:-13 N Ammonia
        C:-82 Rb
        D:-11C Palmitate
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question34:-Which brain SPECT imaging has the poorest resolution quality?
        A:-99m Tc HMPAO
        B:-99m Tc ECD
        C:-123 I IMP
        D:-133 Xe
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-Which among the following is radiochemical impurity?
        A:-Presence of free 99m Tc in radiopharmaceutical preparation
        B:-The presence of 99Mo in 99m Tc04-Solution
        C:-The presence of alumina in 99m Tc04-Solution
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Argon is the choice of gas filled in dose calibrator due to
        A:-It being non-radioactive in most physical conditions
        B:-It being the cheapest among all noble gases
        C:-It has relatively higher Z and lower first ionization potential
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-The major interactions in soft tissues for 100 Kev to 10 Mev energy range is
        A:-Photoelectric effect
        B:-Compton Scattering
        C:-Pair production
        D:-Both 2 and 3
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-It is called for an investigation of Over Exposure if a person is receiving exposure more than 10 mSv during
        A:-One month
        B:-One year
        C:-Monitoring period
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Organ absorbed dose is
        A:-Directly proportional to the effective half-life of the radionuclide
        B:-Inversely proportional to the effective half-life of the radionuclide
        C:-Not related to the effective half-life of the radionuclide
        D:-Four times less than the effective half-life of the radionuclide
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question40:-131 Iodine sealed in the capsule for the treatment of thyroid disorder is termed as
        A:-Normal form of radioactive material
        B:-Special form of radioactive material
        C:-Depends on the activity of 131I in the capsule
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question41:-In case of spillage of very high radionuclide activity, the steps taken are
i.     Information to RSO
ii.    Decontaminate the area
iii.   Inform others about the incidence
iv.   Control the spread of contamination
        A:-i, ii, iii, iv
        B:-ii, iii, iv, i
        C:-iii, iv, i, ii
        D:-iv, ii, iii
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-Sensitivity to radiation carcinogenesis is maximum for
        A:-Senior Citizen > 60 yrs
        B:-Children < 20 yrs
        C:-Adult females
        D:-Adult males in the age group of 20-60yrs
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-If the physical half-life of a radionuclide is 2 days and the biological half-life is 4 days, the effective half life of the radionuclide is
        A:-6 days
        B:-13 days
        C:-1.33 days
        D:-4 days
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question44:-Basic principle of radiation protection is to
        A:-Completely avoid deterministic effects and minimize stochastic effects well below the detectable levels
        B:-Only avoid deterministic effects
        C:-Set dose limits based on actual epidemiological observations of occupational workers
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question45:-Doubling dose for genetic effects is
        A:-Dose needed to achieve double the mutation rate compared to the natural mutation rate
        B:-The dose needed to double the total mutations
        C:-The dose needed to observe double the frequency of recessive disorders in a human population
        D:-The dose needed to achieve half the mutation rate compared to the natural mutation rate
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question46:-Tissue weighting factor is based on
        A:-Fractional contribution of a tissue based on relative detriment towards stochastic risk
        B:-Total weight of the concerned tissue
        C:-Related to the total surface area of the patient
        D:-Threshold of the deterministic effect associated with the tissue
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-Which of the following is the principle of medical ethics?
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question48:-Which of the following are types of consent?
        A:-Informed consent
        B:-Express consent
        C:-Proxy consent
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question49:-Which instrument is used for locating radioactive contamination?
        A:-Well Counter
        B:-Gas Ion Chamber
        C:-Geiger Counter
        D:-Proportional Counter
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-True incidence counts in PET imaging correspond to the number of __________ that occur between a pair of PET detector crystals.
        A:-Positron - electron annihilation
        B:-Annihilation gamma rays
        C:-Nuclear decays
        D:-Positrons emitted
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-What is the minimum volume of gastrointesinal (GI) bleed that can be detected by RBC scintigraphy?
        A:-0.1 mL
        B:-0.5 mL
        C:-1 mL
        D:-5 mL
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question52:-PSMA therapy most common side effects is
        A:-Drop in GFR
        B:-Drop in Blood parameters
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question53:-What is the mechanism of choline uptake in parathyroid adenoma on Choline PET/CT?
        A:-Chief cells
        B:-Oxyphil cells
        C:-Both Chief cells and Oxyphil cells
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question54:-Therasphere/Sirsphere is contraindicated if right to left shunt is more than
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question55:-PET/MR is best indicated in
        A:-Lung metastasis
        B:-Lymph metastasis
        C:-Bone metastasis
        D:-Liver metastasis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-Radiotherapy is indicated in patients with thyroid cancer
        A:-Brain metastasis
        B:-Lung metastasis
        C:-Spinal metastasis
        D:-Lymph node metastasis
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question57:-Dose limiting factor in pediatric thyroid cancer patients is with following site of metastasis
        A:-Brain metastasis
        B:-Lung metastasis
        C:-Spinal metastasis
        D:-Lymph node metastasis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question58:-During a lung perfusion study, activity is noted in the head and in the area of the kidneys. This represents
        A:-Incorrect particle size
        B:-Right to left shunt
        C:-Probable metastasis
        D:-Free technetium in the MAA
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question59:-When activity is noted in the head and in the area of the kidneys, minimum right to left shunt is
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-FAPI PET/CT has advantage over FDG PET/CT in patients with
        A:-GI malignancy
        C:-Breast Cancer
        D:-Genital malignancies
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-In TENIS patients of thyroid cancer FDF PRY/CT is indicated when minimum Tg level is
        A:-More than 5
        B:-More than 80
        C:-More than 120
        D:-More than 20
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-Sandwich protocol in neuroendrocrine tumor therapy is
        A:-Chemotherapy followed by Radiotherapy followed by Chemotherapy
        B:-DOTATATE therapy followed by chemotherapy followed by DOTATATE therapy
        C:-DOTATATE therpay followed by radiotherapy followed by DOTATATE therapy
        D:-DOTATATE therapy followed by surgery followed by DOTATATE therapy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-CXCR for PET/CT is based on
        A:-Chemokine receptors
        B:-SS receptors
        C:-Estrogen receptors
        D:-Progesterone receptors
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question64:-Ga-68 trivhexine PET/CT imaging is based on
        A:-Integrin expression receptor
        B:-Chemokine expression receptor
        C:-Somatostatin receptor
        D:-HER2 receptor
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-F-18 Tetrafluoroborate PET/CT imaging is based on
        A:-Integrin expression receptor
        B:-HER2 receptor
        C:-Chemokine expression receptor
        D:-Sodium/iodide symporter
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-In 3D PET acquisition, what determines the optimum amount of administered activity?
        A:-True count rate
        B:-Noise equivalent count rate
        C:-External radiation exposure
        D:-Internal radiation exposure
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-What is the recommended approach to optimize radiation dose to patients in PET examinations?
        A:-Administer the maximum possible radioactivity to ensure clear images
        B:-Administer an amount of radioactivity sufficient for good images of diagnostic information
        C:-Administer radioactivity beyond the required levels for better count rates
        D:-Administer a fixed amount of radioactivity regardless of imaging requirements
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question68:-What is the half-value thickness of lead material for 511 keV photons compared to 140 keV photons?
        A:-4.1 mm vs 0.3 mm
        B:-0.3 mm vs 4.1 mm
        C:-2.5 mm vs 1.0 mm
        D:-0.5 mm vs 2.0 mm
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question69:-What is the primary concern regarding radiation exposure for staff in nuclear medicine compared to radiology and teletherapy?
        A:-Internal contamination from unsealed sources
        B:-External irradiation during procedures
        C:-Exposure to radioactive aerosols
        D:-Handling of volatile radiopharmaceuticals
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-Which areas in nuclear medicine facility are typically classified as controlled areas?
        A:-Patients waiting rooms
        B:-Examination rooms
        C:-Storage and preparation rooms for radiopharmaceuticals
        D:-Counting and imaging departments
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question71:-What is the purpose of the Annual Limit on Intake (ALI)?
        A:-To determine the maximum amount of radiation a person can receive in a year
        B:-To calculate the amount radiation required for medical imaging
        C:-To estimate the dose resulting from internal contamination
        D:-To regulate the disposal of radioactive materials
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question72:-Which method is typically used to remove loose contamination from surfaces in nuclear medicine facilities?
        A:-Dry wiping
        B:-Acid treatment
        C:-Wet swabbing
        D:-Air blowing
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question73:-What action should be taken if fixed contamination emits high-energy gamma radiation and has a long half-life?
        A:-Dispose of the contaminated object
        B:-Use mild acids for cleaning
        C:-Apply a thick coat of paint
        D:-Use soap-EDTA mixture
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question74:-Which of the following factors is NOT typically considered when planning the layout of a Nuclear Medicine department?
        A:-Accessibility for patients with disabilities
        B:-Proximity to the emergency room
        C:-Adequate shielding for radiation safety
        D:-Workflow efficiency for staff
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question75:-How does the gamma ray constant of PET radionuclides compare to that of Tc-99m?
        A:-The same
        B:-7 times more
        C:-Half as much
        D:-One tenth as much
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question76:-Which of the following radionuclides used for pain palliation works by Auger electron emission?
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question77:-Most common toxicity of therapy is
        B:-Deterioration of renal function
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question78:-Physiological sites for DMSA concentration are all of the following except
        B:-Nasal mucosa
        C:-Female breasts
        D:-Skull bones
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question79:-All of the following are PET agents except
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-Octreotide is preferred over Somatisation because
        A:-It has a shorter half-life than the latter
        B:-It has a longer half-life than the latter
        C:-It shows greater tumour uptake than the latter
        D:-It is less expensive
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-All of the following tumors take up Octreotide except
        A:-Medullary Carcinoma
        D:-Glioblastoma multiforme
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-The T1/2 of Carbon-11, Fluorine-18, Oxygen-15 and Nitrogen-13 are respectively
        A:-20 min, 110 mins, 2 mins and 10 mins
        B:-10 min, 110 mins, 2 mins and 20 mins
        C:-110 min, 10 mins, 20 mins and 2 mins
        D:-2 min, 110 mins, 20 mins and 10 mins
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question83:-Which among the following drugs with not interfere with MIB uptake?
        A:-Tricyclic antidepressents
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-The Fu radionuclide used for large joint synoveitomy is
        A:-Re 186
        B:-Elb 169
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-Which among the following radio isotope is not used for palliation of bone pain?
        B:-Sr 89
        C:-Re 186
        D:-Re 188
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question86:-Which among the following radio isotope is not used for imaging
medullary carcinoma thyroid?
        A:- 68Ga-DOTA-
        B:- 99mTc(V)DMSA
        C:- 131I NaI
        D:- 18F-FDG
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-131I therapy is not indicated in
        A:-Papillary carcinoma thyroid
        B:-Follicular carcinoma thyroid
        C:-Insular carcinoma thyroid
        D:-Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-Among neuroendocrine tumors which has the good prognosis?
        A:- 68Ga DOTA negative and 18 FDG scan positive
        B:- 68Ga DOTA positive and 18 FDG scan positive
        C:- 68Ga DOTA positive and 18 FDG scan negative
        D:- 68Ga DOTA scan negative and 18 FDG scan negative
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question89:-Which radioisotope is ideal for whole body imaging in well differentiated thyroid tumor after thyroidectomy?
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-Which one of the following drugs interfere with the uptake of 131 I in the thyroid gland/metastasis?
        A:-Alpha blockers
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question91:-Which one of the following is the proper way of validating the data?
        A:-Repetition of full data collection in the same population
        B:-Data collection in new population
        C:-Repetition of data collection in a randomly selected subset in the same population
        D:-Repeat data collection is not required
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-To describe the study population characteristics we need to
        A:-Calculate the frequency of distribution
        B:-Calculate measures of association
        C:-Look for correlation between variables
        D:-Perform multivariable regression
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question93:-Which of the following is TRUE for a "Descriptive Research Question"?
        A:-Involves observation to measure a quantity
        B:-Involves comparison groups
        C:-Tests the efficacy of interventions
        D:-Require hypothesis testing
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-The ability to apply the principles of analysis to identify those studies which are unbiased and valid is called as
        A:-Critical appraisal
        B:-Information seeking
        C:-Information management
        D:-Systematic review
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question95:-The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical trial is to
        A:-Achieve comparability of all arms of a clinical trial
        B:-Avoid observer and participant bias
        C:-Avoid observer bias and sampling variation
        D:-Avoid subject bias and sampling variation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-In a clinical trial, what is the main purpose of randomization?
        A:-To get more power for data analysis
        B:-To reduce investigator bias
        C:-To get groups with comparable baseline characteristics
        D:-To ensure optimum number of participants in each trial arm
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-Statistical power is defined as the probability of
        A:-Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false
        B:-Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
        C:-Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false
        D:-Failing to reject a null hypothesis when it is false
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Ability of a study to detect correctly the presence of an association is known as
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-A study design that randomly assigns participation into an experimental group or control group is called as
        A:-Cohort Study
        B:-Case - Control Study
        C:-Randomized Controlled Trials
        D:-Cross Sectional Study
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Difference between the minimum value and the maximum value of the observations
        B:-Inter-quartile range
        D:-Standard deviation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

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