Assistant Professor in Neonatology (NCA- E/T/B) Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Paper Code: 36/2024/OL
Category Code: 363/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Neonatology (NCA- E/T/B)
Date of Test 06-04-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-At birth extracellular water compartment contributes to how much of total body weight?
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Which of the following is NOT correct about fluid homeostasis in newborns?
        A:-At birth extracellular water compartment larger than the intracellular compartment
        B:-The postnatal physiologic weight loss after birth is inversely proportional to birth weight
        C:-The total body water is lower in small for gestational age babies as compared to appropriate for gestational age babies
        D:-Insensible water loss is higher in preterm infants as compared to term infants
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question3:-Which of the following is INCORRECT about hypocalcaemia in neonates?
        A:-Perinatal asphyxia results in early onset hypocalcaemia
        B:-Late onset hypocalcaemia is due to transient hypoparathyroidism
        C:-Shortened QT interval on ECG
        D:-Intravenous calcium should not be added to solution containing sodium bicarbonate
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-All are true about perinatal glucose metabolism EXCEPT
        A:-All fetal glucose is derived from the maternal circulation by the process of transplacental- facilitated diffusion
        B:-Fetal glucose levels are usually maintained at approximately one-third of maternal levels
        C:-The new born maintains blood glucose levels immediately after birth by glycogenolysis of hepatic stores
        D:-Glucose concentrations in the first 48 hours of life are expected to be lower that later in life
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question5:-Wolcott Rallison syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT
        A:-Autosomal recessive condition
        B:-Onset of diabetes mellitus between 1 and 3 month of life
        C:-Multiple epiphyseal dysplasias
        D:-Good long term neurological outcome
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question6:-Which of the following is NOT correct about diagnosis of Osteopenia of prematurity?
        A:-Low/normal calcium
        B:-Raised alkaline phosphatase
        C:-Low phosporus
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-Which of the following statements accurately reflects the physiological changes in bilirubin metabolism during the early postnatal period?
        A:-Neonatal liver glucuronidation capacity is fully mature at birth
        B:-The rate of bilirubin production in newborns is about 2.5 times the rate of bilirubin production in the adults
        C:-New borns have higher levels of biliverdin, a precursor to bilirubin
        D:-There is an increase in clearance of bilirubin from the plasma due to abundance of ligandin protein
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question8:-Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe accurately a physiologic aspect of neonatal cardiovascular development?
        A:-The primary fuel for fetal myocardium is almost exclusively fatty acids in contrast to the adult heart
        B:-The fetal heart grows by hyperplasia of the myocardial cells in contrast with the newborn heart, in which the myocardium grows by hypertrophy
        C:-Fetal myocardium also functions distinctly by developing less active tension for a given stretch than does adult myocardium and therefore has less ability to contract
        D:-The fetus is best able to increase ventricular output by increasing its heart rate
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question9:-Following statement regarding Tyrosinemia type I is CORRECT
        A:-It is diagnosed by elevated tyrosine levels in newborn screening
        B:-Succinyl acetone is highly sensitive marker for diagnosis
        C:-Prednisolone is the drug of choice for treatment
        D:-The disease presents with unexplained heart and lung failure
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question10:-Following statement regarding major stages of CNS development is NOT CORRECT
        A:-Caudal neural tube formation occurs between 4-7 weeks of gestation
        B:-Cellular proliferation in ventricular and subventricular zone (interkinetic migration) occurs between 8-16 weeks of gestation
        C:-Formation of corpus callosum occurs between 24-28 weeks of gestation
        D:-Formation of neural plate occurs at 2 weeks of gestation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question11:-Following statement regarding cord management is NOT CORRECT as per the latest NRP guidelines update
        A:-For term and late preterm newborn infants ≥34 weeks' gestation who do not require resuscitation, delayed cord clamping (≥30 seconds) can be beneficial compared with early cord clamping (<30 seconds)
        B:-For term and late preterm newborn infants ≥34 week's gestation who do not require resuscitation, intact cord milking is not known to be beneficial
compared with delayed cord clamping (≥30 seconds)
        C:-For nonvigorous term and late perterm newborn infants (35-42 weeks' gestation), intact cord milking may be reasonable compared with early cord
clamping (<30 seconds)
        D:-For preterm newborn infants <28 weeks' gestation, intact cord milking may be reasonable compared with early cord clamping (<30 seconds)
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question12:-A baby is about to be delivered at 26 weeks' gestation. The mother received two doses of betamethasone 24 hours ago. Which of the following is a good practice in the first 'golden hour' after delivery?
        A:-All babies at this gestation should be intubated electively at birth so that they can receive surfactant
        B:-The baby should be born into a plastic bag or wrap so that he/she can maintain body temperature
        C:-A saturation probe should be attached to the baby's left hand and oxygen given until the SPO2 is >95% at 10 min of life
        D:-The baby should be dried, weighed and then placed under a radiant heater
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question13:-Following statement is TRUE about birth weight categories in newborn
        A:-Low birth weight is when birth weight is less than 2500 gram at term gestation
        B:-Very low birth weight is when birth weight is less than 1 kg regardless of gestation age
        C:-Very low birth weight is when birth weight is less than 1 kg at less than 36 weeks gestation
        D:-Low birth weight is when birth weight is less than 2500 gm regardless of gestational age
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-Following is NOT a major principle of ethical decision-making in neonatal medicine?
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-What is the most probable long-term neurological complication for a female infant born at 25 weeks' gestation, weighing 809 g, with a relatively uncomplicated neonatal course, including intubation and surfactant administration, mild feed intolerance, and apnea of prematurity, but no retinopathy of prematurity or abnormal cranial ultrasound?
        B:-Spastic Quadriplegia
        C:-Spastic Diplegia
        D:-Mental retardation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question16:-In a 26-week gestation male infant, intubated and ventilated since delivery, who is 6 hours old and has received two doses of surfactant, with a chest radiograph showing a ground glass appearance with air bronchograms, and breathing at a rate of 65 breaths per minute, the current ventilation settings are as follows: Mode: assist control (SIPPV); Fractional inspired oxygen concentration (Fio2) 0.3; Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) 18 cmH2O; positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 6 cmH2O; rate 40 breaths per minute; inspiratory time (IT) 0.35 second. The arterial blood gas results are pH 7.19 [7.34-7.43]; Paco2 62 mmHg [31-42]; Pao2 56mmHg [45-60]; bicarbonate 19 mmol I-1 [20-26]; base excess-4.8 [-5.0-5.0]. What would be the most appropriate alteration to the ventilator settings to improve ventilation?
        A:-Change mode to SIMV
        B:-Increase inspiratory time to 0.6 second
        C:-Increase PEEP to 8 cm
        D:-Increase PIP to 20 cm
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-During the transfer of a 34-week male infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) on a ventilator by airplane, who has received one dose of surfactant and is currently ventilated on SIMV with a back-up rate of 40, pressure 22/6, and Fio2 25%, you notice a gradual drop in oxygen saturations to the mid-80s as the plane ascends to 20,000 feet (6000 m). What would be your immediate action to address this situation?
        A:-Increase the inspired oxygen concentration
        B:-Increase the peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)
        C:-Increase the peak end inspiratory pressure (PEEP)
        D:-Increase the respiratory rate
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-TRUE about "catch up" growth in premature babies is
        A:-Most catch up growth takes place between 36 to 40 weeks after conception
        B:-About 30 percent of premature babies remain below normal weight at 2 yr of age
        C:-Catch growth does not occur after one year of age
        D:-Catch up growth leads to metabolic syndrome in premature neonates
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-Mention TRUE statement regarding immunization in preterm babies?
        A:-Very low birth weight infants may have an increase in cardio respiratory events post vaccination
        B:-Preterm infants should be vaccinated at postmenstrual age rather than chronological age
        C:-Hepatitis B vaccine should be given once baby is more than 1.8 kg
        D:-Most preterm infants do not have adequate immune response to prevent disease
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question20:-More than a quarter of global neonatal deaths occur in India. Government has launched many programmes for improvement of child health. Mark FALSE statement regarding neonatal health:
        A:-Current neonatal mortality rate is 21.7 deaths per 1000 live birth
        B:-Early Neonatal mortality in first week of life account for 15% of all neonatal mortality
        C:-JSSK programme is aimed at mitigating the burden of out of-pocket expenses incurred by pregnant women and sick infants
        D:-Prematurity and infections contributes to be the major causes of neonatal deaths in India
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-Mark FALSE statement about LaQshya Program:
        A:-It is a quality improvement program related labour room practices
        B:-It was launched in December 2017
        C:-Target beneficiaries are every pregnant woman and newborn delivering in private health institutions
        D:-It has digital innovations like LaQshya Web portal and safe delivery app
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-Which is NOT the component of 5Ds of Rashtriya Bal Swasthaya Karyakram (RBSK)?
        C:-Delay and disability
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-Which is INCORRECT about INAP program?
        A:-It stands for "India Newborn Action Plan"
        B:-Launched in June 2014
        C:-Aims at attaining Single Digit Neonatal Mortality Rate by 2030
        D:-It has main eight pillars of intervention
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question24:-Community based interventions to improve neonatal health include all EXCEPT:
        C:-Antibiotics for preterm labor
        D:-Clean delivery practices
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question25:-Which of the following program is NOT associated with neonatal resuscitation?
        A:-Neonatal Resuscitation Program (NRP)
        B:-Helping Babies Breathe (HBB) program
        C:-Maternal Absolute Affection (MAA) program
        D:-Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (NSSK)
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about neonatal deaths?
        A:-Two third of Neonatal death occur during newborn period
        B:-98 percent of neonatal death occur in developing world
        C:-The late neonatal deaths (8-28 days) are mostly because of asphyxia
        D:-Sub-Saharan Africa has the highest neonatal mortality rate in the world
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Which of the following are TRUE regarding babies born to mother with gestational diabetes?
        A:-White's classification is used for gestational diabetes
        B:-Babies are at increased risk of hyperglycemia
        C:-Cardiac dysfunction in babies born to mother with gestational diabetes is because of dilated cardiomyopathy
        D:-They are less prone to developing RDS than age-matched controls born to mothers without diabetes
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question28:-Which of the following is NOT the method of screening and diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy?
        A:-World Health Organization
        B:-Carpenter and Coustan method
        C:-European Obstetric Association
        D:-American Diabetes Association
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Which of the following is CORRECT about antenatal steroids?
        A:-The ASTEROID trial revealed that Dexamethasone is less efficacious than betamethasone
        B:-The ACTION trial was stopped for benefit at the interim analysis
        C:-ASTECS trial evaluated the role of antenatal steroids in late preterm delivered by caesarean section
        D:-The betamethasone is to be given for four doses 6 hours apart
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-Which of the following is CORRECT about antenatal fetal testing?
        A:-Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling will help in diagnosis of fetal anemia
        B:-Triple marker test is done in first trimester
        C:-Nuchal translucency test is to be done before 10 weeks of gestation
        D:-Maturity for non-stress test is achieved at 28 weeks of gestation
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question31:-Which of the following is NOT a genetic diagnostic test in newborn?
        A:-Tandem Mass Spectrometry
        C:-Comparative genomic hybridization
        D:-Exome Sequencing
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question32:-Which of the following is FALSE about hypertensive disorder of pregnancy?
        A:-Preeclampsia is a pregnancy-specific syndrome that is clinically recognized by new onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks' gestation
        B:-Low-dose aspirin therapy may have modest benefit in preeclampsia prevention in high-risk women
        C:-Circulating sFlt-1 and soluble endoglin levels are found to have lower and P1GF levels higher in preeclampsia, even weeks prior to the recognition of the
clinical condition
        D:-The cut off for proteinuria in case of Preeclampsia is ≥300 mg per 24-hour urine collection
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question33:-Which of the following is INCORRECT about genetic abnormalities in fetus?
        A:-Risk of fetal aneuploidy increases with advancing maternal age
        B:-Balanced rearrangements have the normal complement of chromosomal material
        C:-Mitochondrial disease typically manifests as dysfunction in high energyconsuming organs such as the brain, muscle, heart, and kidneys
        D:-Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question34:-Which of the following statements is CORRECT about non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS) or cell free DNA screening?
        A:-It uses maternal DNA circulating in fetal blood
        B:-False positive rate is 10% for detection of trisomy 21
        C:-A vanishing twins, fetal mosaicism or placental mosaicism can also cause false negative results in NIPS
        D:-All chromosomal anomalies can be detected by NIPS
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-Which of the following is INCORRECT about screening of fetal disorders?
        A:-AFP is a fetal-specific molecule that is synthesized by the fetal brain
        B:-Maternal serum Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is an important tool in screening for NTDs
        C:-Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) can result from de novo mutation in 2% of cases
        D:-The founder effect refers to the over representation of specific alleles in an inbred population
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Mark the CORRECT statement about invasive prenatal diagnostic method
        A:-Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) is performed between 12 to 14 weeks of gestation
        B:-Amniocentesis is performed between performed between 10 and 13 weeks' gestation
        C:-Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling is performed before 18 weeks of gestation
        D:-Amniocytes in amniotic fluid can be analyzed for genetic studies
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-Which of the following is FALSE regarding immune hemolytic disease of newborn?
        A:-Rh and ABO incompatibility are major causes
        B:-Indirect and direct antiglobulin tests are done in neonate and mother respectively
        C:-Spherocytes in peripheral smear is indicative of ABO hemolytic disease of newborn
        D:-Estimation of fetal anemia can be done non-invasively by peak systolic velocity in middle cerebral artery
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-Which is TRUE regarding risk of fetal malformation in diabetic pregnancy is correct?
        A:-The highest risk of a major malformation occurs when there is poor maternal glycemic control during the second and third trimesters
        B:-A high HbA1c value alone in early pregnancy should be an indication to terminate the pregnancy
        C:-The rate of malformation is two to four times higher in type 1 and type 2 pregnancies than in the general population
        D:-The most common malformations in diabetic pregnancies involve the upper and lower extremities
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Mark INCORRECT statement about amniotic fluid volume
        A:-Majority of amniotic fluid volume contributed by fetal urine
        B:-Maternal obesity is associated with overestimation of amniotic volumes
        C:-Oligohydramnios may occur after membrane rupture
        D:-Gastrointestinal malformations are associated with polyhydramnios
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question40:-Mark FALSE statement about fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing
        A:-A normal FHR baseline rate ranges from 110-160 beats/min
        B:-Physiologically, early FHR decelerations are a demonstration of Cushing reflex
        C:-An amplitude range of 6-25 beats/min in FHR is indicate of minimal heart rate variability
        D:-The presence of baseline FHR variability is a useful indicator of fetal CNS integrity
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-Mark INCORRECT statement about fetal biophysical profile (BPP)
        A:-There are five components in assessment of fetal biophysical profile
        B:-2 points is given for a single deepest vertical pocket of amniotic fluid measures greater than 2 centimeters
        C:-The maximum possible score is 10
        D:-It can be done within 10 minutes ultrasound assessment
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-Mark INCORRECT statement about surgical treatment of the fetus
        A:-Ex-utero intrapartum therapy (EXIT) allows fetal intervention to be conducted while maintaining uteroplacental circulation, followed by immediate delivery
        B:-Fetal endoscopic tracheal occlusion (FETO) is usually performed between 18 to 22 weeks of gestation in case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
        C:-Management of Myelomeningocele Study (MOMS), compared fetal repair at 19-26 weeks' gestation to postnatal repair in case of Myelomeningocele
        D:-Percutaneous Vesicoamniotic Shunting (VAS) versus conservative management for Fetal Lower Urinary Tract Obstruction (PLUTO) trial, was stopped early due to poor enrollment, and trend towards improved survival in the VAS group
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-Which of the following is NOT a long term complication of IUGR?
        A:-Decreased risk of hypertension
        B:-Poor neurodevelopmental outcome
        C:-Increased risk of diabetes
        D:-Increased risk of obesity
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question44:-Which of the following is INCORRECT about fetal origin of adult disease?
        A:-The Barker hypothesis is about link between cardiovascular disease and birth weight
        B:-Non-epigenetic mechanisms drive fetal programming of adult disease and can have generational effects
        C:-Osteoporosis and Alzheimer disease are chronic disease attributed to developmental origin
        D:-Maternal nutrition, diabetes mellitus, obesity and exposure to stress during pregnancy can affect fetal growth, organ and vascular development
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question45:-Which of the following statement is CORRECT about antenatal use of magnesium sulfate?
        A:-Oral magnesium sulfate therapy is effective for treatment of preterm labor
        B:-It is exclusively excreted by liver
        C:-It is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis
        D:-Antepartum administration in mother reduces the risk of apnea in neonate
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-Mention FALSE statement regarding neonatal health programme.
        A:-Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram programme is aimed at mitigating the burden of out of-pocket expenses incurred by pregnant women and sick infants
        B:-Mothers" absolute affection program is intensified programme with an attempt to bring undiluted focus on promotion of breastfeeding, in addition to ongoing efforts through the health systems
        C:-The main goal of India Newborn Action Plan is attainment of "Single Digit NMR" and "Single Digit SBR by 2025"
        D:-'LaQshya' programme aims at improving quality of care in labour room a maternity operation theatre
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question47:-Which of the following is NOT the component of Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (NSSK) Program?
        A:-Prevention of Jaundice
        B:-Prevention of hypothermia
        C:-Prevention of infections
        D:-Early initiation of breastfeeding
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question48:-Which of the following is INCORRECT statement about Family centred neonatal care?
        A:-It recognizes the important of family to newborn recovery
        B:-It emphasizes on non-separation with parents
        C:-Rounds with parents
        D:-Decreases transparency
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question49:-Which of the following is FALSE about Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC)?
        A:-Launched in 2011
        B:-Has incentivized Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for making visits to all newborns and their mothers
        C:-The visits are done till 6 months of age of baby
        D:-The responsibilities of ASHA include recording of weight of baby, ensuring birth immunization and registration of birth
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-Which of the following is INCORRECT about verbal autopsy in neonatal death?
        A:-It is used to ascertain cause-specific neonatal mortality using parental/familial recall
        B:-It uses standardized questionnaire forms
        C:-The investigating team includes only medical personnel
        D:-Detailed investigation is done only in selected cases of child death
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question51:-All the following are true regarding renal vein thrombosis EXCEPT
        A:-Most often presents in the first week of life
        B:-Hypotension is a risk factor
        C:-Complications include adrenal hemorrhage
        D:-Fibrin degradation products are usually decreased
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question52:-All the following are true regarding immune thrombocytopenia EXCEPT
        A:-The affected neonate is usually healthy
        B:-Platelets are reduced
        C:-Prothrombin time is normal
        D:-Parial thromboplastin time is prolonged
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question53:-Anal wink reflex involves all the following segmental innervation EXCEPT
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-To qualify for hypocalcemia at birth, a preterm infant weighing less than 1.5 kg should have ionized calcium less than
        A:-4 mg/dl
        B:-4.4 mg/dl
        C:-7 mg/dl
        D:-8 mg/dl
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question55:-Normal Resistive index value for newborn is
        A:-< 0.7
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question56:-In the context of toxoplasmosis, which of the following do not cross the placenta?
        D:-Both 2 and 3
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-Which test is recommended for carbapenemase surveillance?
        A:-Jones test
        B:-Becker test
        C:-Modified Hodge test
        D:-Modified Lister test
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-Which of the following conditions is associated with decreased reticulocyte count?
        A:-Pyruvate kinase deficiency
        B:-Chronic fetomaternal hemorrhage
        C:-G6PD deficiency
        D:-Anemia of prematurity
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-Which of the following is avoided in Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome?
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question60:-All the following are contraindications to ECMO EXCEPT
        A:-Weight less than 1.5 kg
        B:-Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
        C:-Gestational age less than 34 weeks
        D:-Severe Coagulopathy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question61:-Which of the following is a poor prognostic sign in congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
        A:-Herniation of spleen
        B:-Herniation of liver
        C:-Herniation of pancreas
        D:-Both 1 and 3
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question62:-Oral feeds for a newborn with chylothorax should contain high percentage of
        A:-Polyunsaturated fatty acids
        B:-Medium chain triglycerides
        C:-Amino acids
        D:-Vitamin E
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-All the following statements are true EXCEPT
        A:-Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in mother is not reflected in the cord blood
        B:-Significant beta glucuronidase activity is found in meconium
        C:-Anterior cerebral artery flow is an index of fetal anemia
        D:-Neonates of heroin users have more chance of severe physiologic jaundice
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question64:-All the following are characteristics of high frequency oscillatory ventilation EXCEPT
        A:-Rate is 480-900 breaths/min
        B:-Inspiratory time is 10-20 msec
        C:-Exhalation is passive
        D:-Chest wiggle factor can help in adjusting ventilator settings
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-All the following can cause neutrophilia in the neonate EXCEPT
        A:-Leucocyte adhesion deficiency
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-All the following statements are true EXCEPT
        A:-Among term neonates 30-40% are SGA
        B:-Infants who have SGA invariably have IUGR also
        C:-IUGR due to placental insufficiency reduces birth weight more than length
        D:-Spleen, liver and adrenals are affected in neonates with late onset IUGR
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-When a T-piece is used for neonatal resuscitation
        A:-PIP is constant
        B:-PEEP is constant
        C:-Both PIP and PEEP are constant
        D:-Both PIP and PEEP are not constant
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question68:-A 3-month old male infant born at 24 weeks' gestation has a history of necrotizing enterocolitis complicated by bowel resection and a continued dependence on parenteral nutrition. His physical examination is notable for hair loss, seborrhea and a scaly dermatitis. What vitamin is most likely to be deficient in this infant?
        A:-Ascorbic acid
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Which among the following does not have a negative score in the New Ballard scoring for gestational age?
        B:-Square window
        C:-Popliteal angle
        D:-Scarf sign
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-All the following are diagnostic criteria for hyperinsulinism EXCEPT
        A:-Insulin level >2 IU/ml
        B:-Beta hydroxyl butyrate level <1.8 mmol/L
        C:-Free fatty acid level <1.7 mmol/L
        D:-Glucose rise ≥30 mg/dl
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question71:-According to our National Guidelines, Comprehensive Lactation Management Centres should be established in
        A:-Medical colleges and Large District Hospitals
        B:-District hospitals and Sub District hospitals
        C:-All delivery points
        D:-Primary health centres
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Which of the following is NOT a feature of Pendred syndrome?
        A:-Sensorineural deafness
        C:-Low total T4
        D:-Low thyroxine binding protein
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-Which of the following is NOT a feature of early acute bilirubin encephalopathy?
        C:-High pitched cry
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question74:-Which of the following condition is NOT associated with meconium plug?
        A:-Hyper magnesemia
        B:-Infant of diabetic mothers
        C:-Cystic fibrosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question75:-Which drug ingestion during pregnancy may cause cutis laxa in newborn?
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-In red zone group of Post Hemorrhagic Ventricular Dilation (PHVD) risk stratification, the key criteria cut off for Anterior Horn Width (AHW)
        A:-AHW>6 mm
        B:-AHW>8 mm
        C:-AHW>10 mm
        D:-AHW>12 mm
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question77:-Following are the category components of modified Sarnath Examination except
        B:-Level of Consciousness
        C:-Spontaneous activity
        D:-Muscle Tone
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question78:-Following are the exclusion criteria for therapeutic hypothermia in HIE except
        A:-Trisomy 18
        B:-Trisomy 13
        C:-Choroid plexus cyst
        D:-Intracranial haemorrhage
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-Following are the physiological components of 'CRIES' pain assessment tool except
        A:-Heart rate
        B:-Respiratory rate
        C:-Blood pressure
        D:-Oxygen saturation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question80:-Most common adverse effect of Pyrimethamine in neonates
        D:-Hepatic dysfunction
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question81:-Modified Finnegan tool is used to assess
        A:-Neonatal abstinence
        B:-Congenital Malformations
        C:-Birth Injury
        D:-Perinatal Asphyxia
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question82:-Most common disorder in congenital rubella syndrome
        A:-Sensory neural hearing deficit
        B:-Ocular disease
        C:-Cardiac Abnormalities
        D:-Psychomotor retardation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question83:-Following are the indications of steroid in congenital toxoplasmosis
        A:-CSF protein> 1g/dL
        B:-Active Chorioretinitis near macula
        C:-None of these
        D:-Both of these
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-One term baby was born, not cried at birth. Cord gas was normal. Had 2-3 episodes seizures in the first 72 hours and subsided. Baby was discharged at 1 week with paladay feeds as continued to have poor suck and increased tone. MRI done in follow up visit showed multicystic encephalomalacia and metabolic workup showed undetectable plasma uric acid. What is the possible diagnosis?
        A:-Molybdenum cofactor deficiency
        B:-Sulphite oxidase deficiency
        C:-Biotinidase deficiency
        D:-Glycine encephalopathy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-Most common peripheral nerve injury in neonates
        A:-Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
        B:-Phrenic nerve injury
        C:-Brachial plexus injury
        D:-Facial nerve injury
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question86:-Which one is not a component in BIND score?
        A:-Eye movement
        B:-Mental state
        C:-Muscle tone
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question87:-Most common complication noted clinically after umbilical artery catheterization
        D:-Leg blanching
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-Following maternal drugs can cause early Vitamin K deficiency of neonates except
        D:-Sodium Valproate
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question89:-Commonest abdominal mass in a neonate is
        A:-Wilm's tumour
        C:-Renal mass
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question90:-Most common cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss is
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-Following is the gold standard test for estimation of hearing thresholds and for confirmation of hearing level in neonates
        A:-Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VRA) test
        B:-Click-evoked ABR testing
        C:-Tympanometry using a 1000-Hz probe tone
        D:-Transient evoked emissions OAE
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question92:-Following feature distinguishes toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) from staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) in neonates
        A:-Nikolsky sign
        B:-Periorificial crusting
        C:-Diffuse skin involvement
        D:-Mucosal blistering
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-Following are the causes of vesiculoopustular eruptions in the newborn
        A:-Congenital candidiasis
        B:-Herpes virus infections
        D:-All the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question94:-Subcutaneous fat necrosis are associated with following except
        A:-Maternal cocaine use
        C:-Meconium aspiration
        D:-Perinatal asphyxia
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-Following are true about the airway hemangiomas in except
        A:-Airway hemangiomas can occur only with the presence of cutaneous infantile hemangiomas
        B:-The highest risk occurs with hemangiomas located in a "beard distribution"
        C:-Segmental hemangiomas involving facial segment 3 have a 29% risk of airway involvement
        D:-Airway hemangiomas present most commonly between 6 and 12 weeks of age
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question96:-Following syndrome is associated with multiple café au lait macules
        A:-Tuberous sclerosis
        B:-Turner syndrome
        C:-McCune-Albright syndrome
        D:-All the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question97:-Following are the high risk stratification of markers of occult spinal dysraphism except
        B:-Dermoid cyst
        C:-Infantile hemangioma ≥1.5 cm
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Visual acuity reaches normal adult ranges by
        A:-1 year of age
        B:-1.5 years of age
        C:-2 years of age
        D:-2.5 years of age
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-"Oil-droplet cataracts" is seen in
        A:-Down syndrome
        C:-Stickler syndrome
        D:-Trisomy 18
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-As per international classification of retinopathy of prematurity 2021, stage 5C ROP includes following findings except
        A:-Lens displacement
        B:-Shallowing of the anterior chamber
        C:-Corneal opacification
        D:-Retinal holes
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

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