Assistant Professor in Genito Urinary Surgery (Urology) Question Paper and Answer Key

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 46/2024/OL
Category Code: 335/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Genito Urinary Surgery (Urology)
Date of Test 20-04-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-The site of origin of Randall plaques in idiopathic stone formers is
        A:-Proximal Convoluted tubule (PCT)
        B:-Terminal collecting ducts
        C:-Basement membrane of thin loops of Henle
        D:-Medullary interstitium
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question2:-The major pathophysiological mechanisms that contribute to Uric Acid stones are all EXCEPT
        A:-Low urinary volume
        B:-Low urinary pH
        C:-Hyperuricosuria
        D:-Hyperuricemia
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question3:-In Sarcoidosis, Hypercalciuria occurs as a result of
        A:-absorptive hypercalciuria
        B:-renal hypercalciuria
        C:-low calcium intake
        D:-reduced excretion of oxalate
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question4:-In Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis, which is the correct statement?
        A:-Profound hypocitraturia is the most important factor in stone formation
        B:-The most common stone composition would be calcium oxalate
        C:-The classic findings include hyperkalemia and hypochloremia
        D:-Characterized by defect in HCO₃^- reabsorption in proximal tubules
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question5:-The microscopic appearance of Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate (Struvite) is
        A:-Needle shaped
        B:-Rectangular
        C:-Amorphous
        D:-Hour glass
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question6:-The gold standard investigation in the evaluation of Urolithiasis is
        A:-MRI
        B:-NCCT (Non Contrast CT)
        C:-DT (Digital Tomosynthesis)
        D:-Micro CT
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-The first line medical treatment for prevention of Cystine stones is
        A:-Urinary acidification
        B:-Decreasing urinary sodium
        C:-Increasing solubility of Cystine
        D:-Binding of Cystine with intestine
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question8:-Medications associated with renal calculus formation are all EXCEPT
        A:-Topiramate
        B:-Triamterene
        C:-Ephedrine
        D:-Acetohydroxamic Acid
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question9:-In Emphysematous Pyelonephritis, the classic triad of symptoms include
        A:-Fever, loin mass, haematuria
        B:-Fever, vomiting and flank pain
        C:-Fever, vomiting and haematuria
        D:-Flank pain, loin mass and haemturia
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question10:-For Uropathogenic E.coli, the following statement is true regarding P Pili
        A:-Strongly associated with Pyelonephritis
        B:-Mannose-sensitive
        C:-Also known as type 1 Pili
        D:-It is encoded by fm operon of UPEC
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-The 'Cobble Stoned' or 'Beaded Necklace' appearance seen in plain radiograph of KUB is see in
        A:-Emphysematous Cystitis
        B:-Renal Papillary Necrosis
        C:-Pelvic Lipomatosis
        D:-Malacoplakia
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question12:-Which of the following is a non-tuberculous mycobacteria?
        A:-Mycobacterium bovis
        B:-Mycobacterium microti
        C:-Mycobacterium africanum
        D:-Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question13:-Which of the following statement about Genito Urinary Tuberculosis (GUTB) is INCORRECT?
        A:-GUTB is the second mc form of extrapulmonary site in developing countries
        B:-80% GUTB occur in kidney
        C:-Gold standard for diagnosis is Urine-AFB culture
        D:-Optimal timing of surgical intervention is about 1 week after initiation of medical therapy
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-Brown colour in Semen is seen
        A:-infection
        B:-spinal cord injured men
        C:-medication
        D:-sexual activity
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question15:-The most common genetic cause for male infertility is
        A:-47 XYY
        B:-45 XO
        C:-47 XXY
        D:-46 XY
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question16:-Major neuropeptides that promote Erectile function include all EXCEPT
        A:-dopamine
        B:-oxytocin
        C:-nitric oxide
        D:-serotonin
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-In the management of Erectile Dysfunction, Vacuum Erection Device is most advantageous for patients with
        A:-Soft glans syndrome
        B:-Post priapism
        C:-Peyronies disease
        D:-Veno-Occlusive dysfunction
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-Molecular basis of Recurrent ischemic priapism is
        A:-Underproduction of adenosine
        B:- PDE₅ dysregulation
        C:-Increased Rho-kinase activity
        D:-Reduced corporal smooth muscle relaxation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question19:-The electrocautery employed during TURBT may result in stimulation of which nerve
        A:-Obturator nerve
        B:-Sciatic nerve
        C:-Genitofemoral nerve
        D:-Ilioinguinal nerve
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question20:-Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding Lumbo dorsal fascia?
        A:-The three layers of this fascia merge into one near the tip of 12^th rib
        B:-It merges with transversus abdominis muscle anterolaterally
        C:-The posterior lamella originates medially from the spinous process of lumbar vertebrae
        D:-The posterior lamella separates erector spinae muscles from quadratus lumborum
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-Columns of Bertin are
        A:-the apex of pyramids
        B:-extension of renal medulla between pyramids
        C:-extension of renal cortex between pyramids
        D:-conical shaped areas in renal medulla
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-The primary pacemaker cells for Ureteral peristalsis are
        A:-ICC like cells (telocytes) in upper tract
        B:-Normally dominated by latent pacemakers
        C:-Located in the distal portion of the collecting system
        D:-The atypical smooth muscle cells
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-The Substrate for NOS (Nitric Oxide Synthase)
        A:-L-Arginine
        B:-L-Citrulline
        C:-Cyclic AMP
        D:-Cyclic GMP
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-The definitive kidney 'metanephros' develop at
        A:- 2^nd week of gestation
        B:- 3^rd week of gestation
        C:- 4th week of gestation
        D:- 1^st week of gestation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question25:-During the development of male urogenital organs, which one is derived from the mesodermal (Wolffian) mesonephric duct
        A:-Prostate
        B:-Urachus
        C:-Seminal vesicle
        D:-Urethra
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-The Radiopharmaceutical, which is an excellent choice for evaluating patients with renal insufficiency and urinary obstruction is
        A:- ⁹⁹T_{c - MAG3}   
        B:-⁹⁹T_{c - DTPA}
        C:-⁹⁹T_{c - DMSA}
        D:-⁹⁹T_{c - EC}
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question27:-In multipara MRI which one of the following statement is INCORRECT?
        A:- T₁ Weighted images can detect hemorrhage present in the prostate
        B:- T₂ Weighted images provide anatomic information of the prostate C:-Diffusion Weighted Imaging (DWI) accesses the diffusion of water within magnetic field
        D:-Dynamic Contrast - Enhanced MRI (DCE) provides clear anatomic images to assess prostate
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-In USS (Ultra Sound Scan) of kidney, an image is said to be hypoechoic if
        A:-it is brighter than surrounding tissues
        B:-it is darker than surrounding tissues
        C:-black without echoes
        D:-same as that of liver
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question29:-Which form of incontinence is usually treated medically initially?
        A:-Stress incontinence
        B:-Continuous incontinence
        C:-Overflow incontinence
        D:-Urge incontinence
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question30:-What is the common cause of ureteral avulsion during stone basketing for upper ureteric stone?
        A:-Ureteroscopy without dilating the ureteric orifice
        B:-Persistence attempts of stone basketing in the face of ureteral tear
        C:-Use of holmium laser
        D:-Ureteroscopy in non dilated system
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question31:-A 34 year male has road traffic accident. His vital signs are stable and there are no significant external injuries. CT scan revealed deep parenchymal lacerations in the right kidney. The next step is
        A:-Open surgical repair of kidney
        B:-Renal artery embolisation
        C:-Delayed imaging to evaluate the pelviccalyceal system
        D:-Right nephrectomy to avoid future complications
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-A 26 year female reports constant leakage of urine per vagina following an emergency caesarean section for foetal distress during labour. Her vitals are stable and physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates bilateral normal kidneys and bladder. The most likely diagnosis is
        A:-Ureterovaginal fistula
        B:-Urethrovaginal fistula
        C:-Vesicovaginal fistula
        D:-Vesicouterine fistula
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-Intraoperative consultation is called by a gynaecologist for possible urinary tract injury during a difficult transabdominal hysterectomy. During inspection clear fluidis noted in the pelvis with ureteral transection on left side. What is the next step?
        A:-Excision and ureteroureterostomy with DJ stent
        B:-Observation
        C:-Ureteral stent placement
        D:-Cutaneous ureterostomy
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question34:-VVF (Vesicovaginal fistula) due to obstructed labour are
        A:-Usually located at the vaginal apex
        B:-The most common etiology in developing countries
        C:-Found in multiparous women
        D:-Usually smaller and simple to repair
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question35:-All of the following are the principles of urinary fistula repair except
        A:-Tension free closure
        B:-Water tight closure
        C:-Excision of fistula tract
        D:-Adequate post operative urinary drainage
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-Which of the following statement is correct regarding multichannel Urodynamics?
        A:-Should be done in all patients with incontinence
        B:-Is not helpful in determine if a patient is at risk of upper tract deterioration
        C:-Includes three directly measured value: P det, P ves, P abd
        D:-Is the most accurate diagnostic tool available for evaluation of incontinence
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-Detrusor overactivity can be diagnosed during urodynamics
        A:-If voluntary filling phase contraction are seen irrespective of size
        B:-If voluntary filling phase contraction are >15 cm in amplitude
        C:-If there is leakage during cough in filling phase
        D:-In voiding phase of micturition
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-Which of the statement is true for pelvic floor muscle training?
        A:-Pelvic floor muscle training works for women, but not for men
        B:-Pelvic floor muscle training is effective for treating stress, urged or mixed urinary incontinence in men and women of any age
        C:-Pelvic floor muscle training is not effective for older people
        D:-Pelvic floor muscle training works for stress or mixed incontinence but not for urgency incontinence
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question39:-The current indications for sacral neuromodulation include all except
        A:-Urinary urgency
        B:-Urinary frequency
        C:-Interstitial cystitis
        D:-Urgency urinary incontinence
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-The hallmark of bladder outlet obstruction is
        A:-Low pressure low flow voiding during urodynamics
        B:-Incomplete bladder emptying
        C:-Elevated post void residual
        D:-High pressure and low flow during urodynamics
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question41:-What is the commonest form of urinary incontinence in woman aged 40 year?
        A:-Stress incontinence
        B:-Urgency incontinence
        C:-Mixed incontinence
        D:-Continuous incontinence
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question42:-Which of the following factors may result in accurate measurement of bladder compliance?
        A:-Prior radiation to the pelvis
        B:-Presence of vesicoureteral reflux
        C:-Bladder outlet obstruction
        D:-History of genitourinary tuberculosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-The most common urodynamic findings in patients with Parkinson disease with lower urinary tract dysfunction is
        A:-Striated sphincter dyssynergia
        B:-Striated sphincter bradykinesia
        C:-Detrusor overactivity
        D:-Impaired detrusor contractility
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question44:-In determining the anatomy of the anterior urethral structure, all of the following investigations are useful except
        A:-Retrograde urethrography/micturating cystourethrography (MCU/RGU)
        B:-High resolution ultrasonography
        C:-Urethroscopy
        D:-Magnetic resonance imaging
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-Which of the following statement regarding continence after reconstruction for Pelvic fracture urethral injury (PFUI) is true?
        A:-Continence is best addressed after a procedure to re-establish urethral continuity is established
        B:-Continence can be accurately predicted with contrast studies
        C:-Continence is best predicted by appearance of bladder neck on endoscopy
        D:-Continence is best in patients with partial distraction injuries
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question46:-Tumor syndrome strongly associated with genitourinary malginancies is
        A:-Familial adenomatous polyposis
        B:-Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer
        C:-Li-Fraumeni
        D:-MEN type I
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-All of the following statements regarding histopathological feature of spermatocytic seminoma are correct, EXCEPT
        A:-Do not stain for glycogen
        B:-Do not stain for placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP)
        C:-Abundant lymphocyte infiltration
        D:-Round Nucleus
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question48:-"Stamped trial" is associated with
        A:-Prostate cancer
        B:-Locally advanced renal cell carcinoma
        C:-Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
        D:-Bladder cancer
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question49:-"HIVEC" is a newer technique used in the treatment of
        A:-Renal cell carcinoma
        B:-Bladder cancer
        C:-Prostate cancer
        D:-Penile cancer
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question50:-All of the following statements regarding familial renal cell carcinoma (RCC) subtypes association is correct, Except
        A:-Hereditary papillary RCC-activation of the proto-oncogene tyrosine kinase c-Met
        B:-Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome- clear cell renal cell carcinoma
        C:-Hereditary leiomyomatosis RCC-fumarate hydratase gene
        D:-Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome-losses of 3q
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question51:-A 67 years old man presented with lower urinary tract symptoms for last 10 months. On evaluation he was diagnosed as a case of carcinoma prostate with serum PSA 8 ng/m L and Gleason score of 3+4=7. PSMA/PET-CT scan was suggestive of uptake in left lobe of prostate and left internal iliac lymph node. As per latest national comprehensive cancer network guidelines, he belongs to which stage of prostate cancer?
        A:-Stage II A
        B:-Stage III A
        C:-Stage III B
        D:-Stage IV A
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question52:-All of the following statements regarding plasmacytoid variant of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT?
        A:-Comprising less than 1% of all urothelial tumors
        B:-Associated with characteristic intraperitoneal metastatic spread
        C:-It is chemoresistant
        D:-Eosinophilic cytoplasm
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question53:-According to the PI-RADS v2.1 sector mapping, the prostate (excluding seminal vesicles and the external urethral sphincter) has been divided into how many sectors?
        A:-27
        B:-38
        C:-41
        D:-43
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question54:-All of the following are well established risk factors for testis cancer, Except
        A:-Black race
        B:-Cryptorchidism
        C:-Family history of testis cancer
        D:-Germ cell neoplasia insitu
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question55:-A 68 years old male presented with gross painless hematuria for last 7 days. On evaluation 3.5 cm × 2.5 cm growth detected on base of urinary bladder. Post TURBT histopathological report suggestive of non-muscle invasive micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma. Metastatic workups were negative. The next best treatment option for him is
        A:-Intravesical BCG
        B:-Radical cystectomy
        C:-Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
        D:-Re-TURBT and then manage accordingly
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question56:-All of the following prognostic models are suitable for localized renal cell carcinoma, Except:
        A:-UISS (University of California Integrated Staging System)
        B:-Leibovich Score
        C:-VENUSS score (Venous Extension, Nuclear grade, Size, Stage)
        D:-MSKCC (Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center)
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-All of the following drugs are immune checkpoint inhibitors for treatment of metastatic renal cell carcinoma, Except:
        A:-Bevacizumab
        B:-Pembrolilzumab
        C:-Ipilimumab
        D:-Nivolumab
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question58:-LATITUDE prognostic model is most appropriate for
        A:-Metastatic prostate cancer
        B:-Locally-advanced prostate cancer
        C:-Localised prostate cancer
        D:-Both locally-advanced and localized prostate cancer
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question59:-A 60 years old male with large (8 cm × 7.5 cm) right renal cell carcinoma requires occasional assistance but able to care for most of one's own needs. The Karnofsky performance Score of this patient is
        A:-40
        B:-50
        C:-60
        D:-70
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question60:-All of the following statements regarding focal therapy for renal tumors are true, EXCEPT:
        A:-Most suitable alternatives for tumors less than 3 cm in diameter
        B:-Less technically demanding than open, laparoscopic, or robotic partial nephrectomy
        C:-Tumors treated with radio frequency ablation demonstrated >50% reduction in size in the first year
        D:-Preferred target tissue temperature during cryoblation is at or below -40 degree C
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question61:-Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma originates from
        A:-Proximal tubule
        B:-Both proximal and distal tubule
        C:-Intercalated cells of collecting duct
        D:-Principal cells of collecting duct
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-A 55 years of old male presented with swelling over mid shaft of penis with occasional hematuria. On evaluation urothelial carcinoma of urethra with involvement of corpus cavernosum was found. No any lymph node involvement. The best first line treatment option for him is
        A:-Radical cystectomy
        B:-Systemic therapy
        C:-Chemoradiotherapy ± consolidative surgery
        D:-Partial urethrectomy ± penectomy
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question63:-All of the following statements regarding micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT
        A:-Strong female predominance
        B:-5-year overall survival is around 50%
        C:-Most effective therapy is surgical resection
        D:-Occurs in approximately 0.7% to 2.2% of all urothelial tumors
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question64:-Which of the following intravesical agents least commonly causes cystitis?
        A:-Doxorubicin
        B:-Gemcitabine
        C:-Mitomycin
        D:-Epirubicin
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question65:-All of the following are indications of induction chemotherapy in carcinoma penis, except
        A:-Fixed nodal metastases
        B:-More than 4 mobile lymph nodes
        C:-More than 4 cm mobile lymph node
        D:-Pelvic nodal metastases
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-A 55-year-old male presented with ulceroproliferative growth over the penile shaft. On evaluation, it is suggestive of squamous carcinoma with involvement of Corpora Cavernosum,including Tunica albuginea. He belongs to which of the following "T" categories as per the latest TNM penile cancer staging system?
        A:-T1
        B:-T2
        C:-T3
        D:-T4
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question67:-All of the following statements regarding primary mediastinal nonseminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) are true, except
        A:-More sensitive to chemotherapy
        B:-Poor Prognosis
        C:-More likely to have yolk sac-tumour components
        D:-Associated with Klinefelter syndrome
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question68:-All of the following are treatment options for high-risk localised prostate cancer, Except
        A:-Watchful Waiting
        B:-Active Surveillance
        C:-Radical prostatectomy + Extended pelvic lymph node dissection
        D:-Radiotherapeutic treatment
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-The most common cause for acute renal failure is
        A:-Acute Tubular Necrosis
        B:-Glomerulonephritis
        C:-Systemic Vasculitis
        D:-Tubulo interstitial Nephritis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-Minimal change Nephrotic Syndrome is characterized by all except
        A:-Generalised edema
        B:-Pulmonary edema
        C:-Hyperlipidemia
        D:-Ascites
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question71:-Which is true about post obstructive diuresis?
        A:-Urine production of >100 mL/hr for two hours
        B:-Urine production of >200 mL/hr for two hours
        C:-Urine production of >400 mL/hr for two hours
        D:-Urine production of >500 mL/hr for two hours
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question72:-The most common cause of Obstructive Uropathy is
        A:-Posterior Urethral Valve
        B:-Neurogenic Bladder
        C:-BPH
        D:-Urethral Stricture
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question73:-Which of the following is unlikely to recur in transplant kidney?
        A:-Autosomal dominant poly cystic disease
        B:-Hyperoxaluria type 1
        C:-Atypical Haemolytic Uremic syndrome
        D:-Glomerulonephritis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question74:-Pre transplant surgical nephrectomy is indicated in the following situations except:
        A:-Persistent urinary tract infection
        B:-Severe proteinuria
        C:-Polycystic kidneys
        D:-Malignant transformation of native kidneys
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question75:-Which is not an absolute contraindication for adult renal transplantation?
        A:-Morbid obesity (BMI>35)
        B:-BMI>30<35
        C:-BMI<20
        D:-Anuria
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question76:-The nerve supply of the Adrenal gland is
        A:-Sympathetic to medulla
        B:-Sympathetic to cortex
        C:-Parasympathetic to medulla
        D:-Parasympathetic to cortex
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-The most reliable screening test for Primary Aldosteronism is
        A:-Serum Potassium
        B:-24-hour urine Aldosterone estimation
        C:-Plasma Aldosterone to Renin Ratio
        D:-Adrenal Vein Sampling
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question78:-Malignant Pheochromocytoma most commonly metastasizes to
        A:-Liver
        B:-Lungs
        C:-Bone
        D:-Lymph Nodes
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-The current gold standard functional imaging modality for evaluating Pheochromocytoma is
        A:-MRI
        B:-CECT Abdomen
        C:-2 FDG PET
        D:-MIBG Scintigraphy
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-Screening tests for Cushing Syndrome all except
        A:-Serum ACTH
        B:-Late night salivary cortisol test
        C:-Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
        D:-Dexamethasone-CRH test
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question81:-Absolute contraindications for paediatric renal transplant include all except
        A:-Uncontrolled malignant disease
        B:-Uncontrolled infection
        C:-ABO incompatibility
        D:-Current positive cross match
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-Brain stem death cannot be declared in which paediatric age group
        A:-< 2 months old
        B:-2 months to 1-year
        C:-1-12 years
        D:-Brain death can be declared only after 12 years of age
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question83:-Regarding continuous antibiotic prophylaxis in medical mangement of antenatally diagnosed hydronephrosis
        A:-Amoxycillin is the drug of choice in neonates
        B:-Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is drug of choice in infants more than two months age
        C:-Typical dose is half the therapeutic dose
        D:-Drug is given once daily in the evening
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question84:-The most common presentation of Ureterocele in either sex is
        A:-Palpable abdominal mass
        B:-Urinary infections
        C:-Urethral mass
        D:-Vesico ureteric reflux
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-The most common cause of Priapism in children is
        A:-Idiopathic
        B:-Trauma
        C:-Leukemia
        D:-Sickle cell disease
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question86:-The most reliable clinical sign of Torsion Testes is
        A:-Prehn's Sign
        B:-Transverse lie
        C:-Absent Cremasteric reflex
        D:-Scrotal swelling, oedema and tenderness
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-The term Fetal Uropathy relates to
        A:-Bilateral Renal agenesis
        B:-Bilateral Vesico Urerteric reflex
        C:-Posterior Urethral Valve
        D:-Exstrophy-Epispadias Complex
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question88:-Regarding adolescent Varicocele: indications for surgery include all except
        A:-Significant left testicular atrophy
        B:-Bilateral testicular atrophy
        C:-Grade iii variocele
        D:-Abnormal semen parameters in boys of Tanner stage 5
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question89:-Clinical findings that may suggest presence of DSD in a boy include the following except
        A:-Delayed puberty
        B:-Cyclical haematuria
        C:-Hypospadias with undescended testes
        D:-Inguinal hernia before six months of age
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-Pediatric patients with uncomplicated ureteral stones less than 10 mm are best managed with
        A:-Alpha blockers
        B:-ESWL
        C:-Laser Lithotripsy
        D:-Ureterolithotomy
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question91:-Which is not a criterion in International Prostate Symptom Score?
        A:-Frequency
        B:-Urgency
        C:-Incomplete voiding
        D:-Dysuria
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-Which investigation is not recommended for assessment of bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms?
        A:-IPSS
        B:-Digital Rectal Examination
        C:-Uroflow Study
        D:-USS Abdomen and Pelvis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-Which receptor is not a mediator of lower urinary tract symptoms?
        A:-Alpha1a
        B:-Alpha1b
        C:-Alpha1c
        D:-Alpha1d
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question94:-Non-invasive tests to diagnose bladder outlet obstruction in patients with lower urinary tract symptoms includes ultrasound estimation of all except
        A:-Intravesical Prostatic Protrusion
        B:-Transition zone volume
        C:-Bladder wall thickness
        D:-Bladder weight
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-Which is the strongest predictor of BPH progression?
        A:-Age
        B:-Flow rates
        C:-Serum PSA
        D:-Symptom score
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question96:-Favourable factors for successful trial without catheter are all of the following except
        A:-Absence of previous LUTS
        B:-Age <65 years
        C:-Drained volume >1000 MI
        D:-High Detrusor pressure on voiding
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-The alpha blocker with least adverse effect on ejaculatory function is
        A:-Tamsulosin
        B:-Alfuzocin
        C:-Silodosin
        D:-Naftopidil
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question98:-The treatment of choice for male patients with moderate to severe LUTS due to BPH and enlarged prostate is
        A:-Alpha blockers
        B:-Combining Alpha blockers with 5 Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
        C:-Combining Alpha blockers with Antimuscarinics
        D:-Combining Alpha blockers with Phosphodiesterase-5 Inhibitors
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-Which of the following is not a contraindication for Laproscopic surgery?
        A:-Hemodynamic instability
        B:-Intestinal Obstruction
        C:-Increased intracranial pressure
        D:-Morbid obesity
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question100:-The pnemo peritoneum pressure selected for performing Robotic and Laparoscopic procedures is
        A:-5 mm Hg
        B:-10 mm Hg
        C:-15 mm Hg
        D:-20 mm Hg
        Correct Answer:- Option-C