Question Paper Code:163/2023/OL
Category Code:529/2022
Exam: Materials Manager
Date of Test 20-11-2023
Department Kerala State cooperative Coir Marketing Federation Ltd

Question1:-The Econometric model of forecasting in management is
A:-Exponential smoothing
B:-Regression analysis
C:-Opinion polls
D:-Sales force composite

Question2:-Which of the following is not correct?
A:-Fulkerson's rule - Project Network
B:-N-W Corner rule - Assignment problem
C:-Johnson's rule - Scheduling
D:-Simplex Method - Linear programming

Question3:-Calculate the total wage earned by the worker using Halsey plan : Minimum Guaranteed wage - Rs. 200/hour Time allowed for the job - 10 hours Time taken by the employee - 8 hours Percentage bonus is 50%
A:-Rs. 1,600
B:-Rs. 1,740
C:-Rs. 1,800
D:-Rs. 2,000

Question4:-An aisle in a plant layout is
A:-Area ear marked for traffic inside the shop
B:-Area meant for preventive maintanence
C:-Area meant for electrical cables
D:-Area ear marked for drainage

Question5:-C-Chart generally follows
A:-Binomial distribution
B:-Normal distribution
C:-Poisson distribution
D:-None of these

Question6:-If the lower control limit has a negative value in P-chart, it is taken as
A:-Zero
B:-Unity
C:-Infinity
D:-Positive

Question7:-The basic procedure for method study doesnot include
A:-Record
B:-Examine
C:-Develop
D:-Eliminate

Question8:-Observed time of an element is 0.30 minute, pace rating is 75% and the sum of all secondary adjustment for job complexity is 30%. The normal time is
A:-0.47 minutes
B:-0.16 minutes
C:-0.29 minutes
D:-0.43 minute

Question9:-For a project network, optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time are 8, 10 and 14 respectively. The expected time (tE) is
A:-8.17
B:-14.2
C:-6.5
D:-10.3

Question10:-If the unit ordering cost is thrice the initial, EOQ will change to
A:-9 times
B:-1.73 times
C:-1.41 times
D:-1/3 times

Question11:-The solid solution of carbon in -iron is known as
A:-Austenite
B:- -Ferrite
C:-Cementite
D:- - Ferrite

Question12:-Which one of the following statements about heat treatment is correct?
(i)     Heat treatment softens the metal
(ii)    Heat treatment refines the grain structure
(iii)   Heat treatment relieves internal stresses
(iv)   Heat treatment decreases the wear resistance
A:-(i), (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
B:-(i), (ii) and (iii) only
C:-(i) and (ii) only
D:-(i) and (iii) only

Question13:-The property of a metal, when it is subjected to high temperature for a long period of time is known as
A:-Fatigue
B:-Resilience
C:-Toughness
D:-Creep

Question14:-Auto collimator is used for measuring
A:-Flatness
B:-Angular difference
C:-Straightness
D:-Surface finish

Question15:-Oxidising flame in gas welding is used for welding
A:-Brass and Bronze
B:-Alloy steels
C:-Cast iron
D:-Copper

Question16:-Consider the following statements :
(i)     Cutting speed affects the tool life
(ii)    Tool geometry does not affect the tool life
(iii)    Feed and depth of cut affects the tool life
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A:-(i) and (ii) only
B:-(i) and (iii) only
C:-(ii) and (iii) only
D:-(i), (ii) and (iii) only

Question17:-The Lathe accessory which is used for holding bored parts for machining their outside surface on lathe is
A:-Face plate
B:-Angle plate
C:-Mandrel
D:-Lathe carrier or dogs

Question18:-A milling operation in which a pair of side milling cutters is used for machining two parallel vertical surface of a workpiece simultaneously is known as
A:-Gang milling
C:-Face milling
D:-Slab milling

Question19:-Consider the following operations :
(i)    Boring
(ii)   Counter sinking
(iii)   Broaching
(iv)   Tapping
Which of the operations given above can be performed on a drilling machine?
A:-(i), (ii) and (iv) only
B:-(i) and (ii) only
C:-(i), (ii) and (iii) only
D:-(iii) and (iv) only

Question20:-Consider the following systems :
(i)     Tool systems
(ii)     Planning systems
(iii)    Transporting systems
(iv)    Handling systems
Which of the systems given above is/are the component of flexible manufacturing systems
A:-(i) and (ii) only
B:-(ii) and (iii) only
C:-(i) and (iii) only
D:-(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Question21:-In an inverted U tube manometer, the density of the manometric fluid in comparison with the density of fluid whose pressure difference is to be found out
A:-is lighter
B:-is denser
C:-has same density
D:-doesn't depend on the density

Question22:-In a hydraulic jack the pistons have an area of and . The specific gravity of hydraulic oil used is 0.87. If a car weighing 1000 kg is to be lifted up find out the force to be applied
A:-29.6 N
B:-19.6 N
C:-9.6 N
D:-39.6 N

Question23:-The velocity along the centreline of a nozzle of length L is given by Where u is the velocity in m/s, t is time in seconds and x is the distance in meters
from the nozzle inlet. If the length of nozzle is 0.5 m, the acceleration when t=1 second and x = 0.1 is
A:-1.62 m/s
B:--5.83 m/s
C:--4.21 m/s
D:-5.83 m/s

A:-(2y)k
B:-(4y)k
C:-(-2y)k
D:-(-4y)k

Question25:-A pitot-static tube records
A:-Static pressure and dynamic pressure
B:-Static pressure and stagnation pressure
C:-Dynamic pressure and stagnation pressure
D:-Static pressure only

Question26:-A jet of water 60 mm diameter and velocity 20 m/s strikes a symmetrically curved fixed vane at the centre. After impingement the jet gets deflected through 150º by the vane. Find the force excited by the jet on the vane if the surface of the vane is smooth
A:-2110 N
B:-1605 N
C:--151 N
D:--979 N

Question27:-A Pelton wheel is designed to operate under a head of 625 m and develop 6 MW while running at 200 rpm. The unit speed of the turbine is
A:-4898
B:-8
C:-0.32
D:-0.57

Question28:-Following are different statements related to draft tube. Which among them is/are correct?
(i)   It decreases the pressure at the runner exit to a value less than atmosphere pressure
(ii) It recovers a portion of exit kinetic energy to tail race
(iii) It increases the pressure at the runner exit to prevent recirculation
(iv) It does not recover any portion of exit kinetic energy
A:-Only (i)
B:-Both (i) and (ii)
C:-Only (iii)
D:-Both (iii) and (iv)

Question29:-A centrifugal pump is designed to discharge 0.25 /s against a head of 16 m while running at 900 rpm. The specific speed of the pump is
A:-112.5
B:-28.12
C:-14.06
D:-56.25

Question30:-A double acting reciprocating pump runs at 120 rpm. The suction pipe has a diameter of 100 mm has an air vessel fitted to its suction side. The diameter
of cylinder and stoke are 150 mm and 450 mm respectively. If piston is driven with Simple Harmonic Motion, the rate of flow into the air vessel when the crank makes
60° with the inner dead centre is
A:-0.011 m³/s
B:- 0.007m³/s
C:- 0.019m³/s
D:- 0m³/s

Question31:-According to Lami's Theorem
A:-Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
B:-Each forces acting at appoint can be represented by a triangle each side being proportional to force
C:-If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of the triangle taken in the order they will be in equilibrium
D:-If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two

Question32:-A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 600 MPa in one plane accompanied by simple shear stress of 400 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
A:--100 MPa
B:-500 MPa
C:-250 MPa
D:--250 MPa

Question33:-A column of length 'L' with one end fixed and other end hinged may be considered equivalent to a column of length __________ with both ends hinged.
A:-L
B:-L/2
C:-L/
D:-L/8

Question34:-The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is
A:-Elastic modulus
B:-Plastic modulus
C:-Poisson's ratio
D:-None of the mentioned

Question35:-A cantilever is subjected to point load at the free end. The maximum tensile form of bending stress on the beam acts at
A:-Top most point of the beam at the fixed end
B:-Neutral axis of the beam at the fixed end
C:-Bottom most point of the beam at the fixed end
D:-Top most point of the beam at the free end

Question36:-Which among the following materials does not exhibit distinct endurance limit?
A:-Mild steel
B:-Titanium
C:-Stainless steel
D:-Aluminium

Question37:-Two mating spur gears have 30 and 90 teeth respectively. The pinon rotates at 900 rpm and transmit torque of 15 Nm. The torque transmitted by gear is
A:-30 Nm
B:-15 Nm
C:-45 Nm
D:-12 Nm

Question38
:-A screw thread is specified by
A:-Pitch diameter
B:-Nominal diameter
C:-Minor diameter
D:-Root diameter

Question39:-The longitudinal joint in boilers is used to get the required
A:-Efficiency of the boiler
B:-Length of the boiler
C:-Diameter of the boiler
D:-Length and diameter of boiler

Question40:-Bull engine is an inversion of
A:-Single slider crank chain
B:-Double slider crank chain
C:-Triple slider crank chain
D:-Four bar chain

Question41:-Which of the following performance test is conducted on I.C. engine for estimating indicated power of a Multi-cylinder engines?
A:-Retardation test
B:-Heat balance test
C:-Morse test
D:-None of the above

Question42:-Which of the following does not related to SI engines?
A:-Carburetor
B:-Spark plug
C:-Fuel injector
D:-Ignition coil

Question43:-If the reflectivity and transmissivity of a body is zero, then it is referred as
A:-Black body
B:-White body
C:-Grey body
D:-Opaque body

Question44:-Which of the following engine performance parameter is the criterion of economic power production?
A:-Total fuel consumption
B:-Specific fuel consumption
C:-Brake power
D:-Indicated power

Question45:-The ratio of brake power to indicated power of an I.C. engine is
A:-Thermal efficiency
B:-Volumetric efficiency
C:-Relative efficiency
D:-Mechanical efficiency

Question46:-The ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity is
A:-Prandtl number
B:-Reynolds number
C:-Nusselt number
D:-Grashof number

Question47:-Lumpted system analysis is reasonably applicable when the value of Biot number is less than
A:-0.1
B:-1
C:-10
D:-0.01

Question48:-Which of the following is true if the value of Nusselt Number is unity?
A:-Heat transfer is through conduction only
B:-Heat transfer is through convention only
C:-Absence of heat transfer
D:-None of the mentioned

Question49:-Which of the following heat transfer process involve the internal heat generation?
A:-Nuclear fission
B:-Curing of concrete
C:-Joule heating
D:-All the above

Question50:-Value of relative humidity for the saturated air is
A:-0%
B:-100%
C:-1%
D:-Any of the above

Question51:-Find the resistance of the coil which takes a current of 5<60° A (lag) from the 100V, 50 Hz supply.
A:-5O
B:-10O
C:-20O
D:-60O

Question52:-For a series RLC circuit, the power factor at the lower half power frequency is
A:-0.5 lagging
B:-0.707 lagging

Question55:-The power supplied by 50V source is

A:-250W
B:-125W
C:-500W
D:-150W

Question56:-The circuit is in steady state at switch position 1. The switch is moved
to position 2 at t = 0. The current i(t) in the circuit at t = 0 + is

A:-0.2A
B:-0.8A
C:-1.2A
D:-2.4A

Question57:-The r.m.s. value of the current i(t) in the circuit shown below is

A:-v2A
B:-2v2A
C:-2A
D:-(1/v2)A

A:-5V
B:-25V
C:-15V
D:-20V

Question59:-If a purely resistive load has to be connected to an AC voltage source with internal impedance of (8+j6)O in order to extract maximum power out of the
source, the value of load resistance in O should be
A:-8
B:-6
C:-10
D:-14

A:-8cost(t)
B:-2cos(t)
C:--2cos(t)
D:-cos(t)

Question61:-The purpose of equalizer rings in a lap winding DC machine is to
A:-Improve commutation
B:-Reduce armature reaction
C:-Reduce harmonics
D:-Prevent the flow of circulating current through brushes

Question62:-If is the iron loss and is the copper loss of a transformer, the
maximum efficiency of the transformer occurs at

Question63:-A shunt generator delivers 500 A at 250 V and the resistance of shunt field and armature are 50 ohm and 0.01 ohm respectively. The generated emf is
A:-250V
B:-255 V
C:-255.05 V
D:-None of the above

Question64:-A 20 KVA, 2000/200V single phase transformer has core loss of 300 W and copper loss of 400 W at full load. The total losses at half full load will be
A:-400 W
B:-300 W
C:-200 W
D:-None of the above

Question65:-A 4 pole three phase induction motor operates from 440 V, 50 Hz supply. At 4% slip, the speed of the motor is
A:-1500 rpm
B:-1400 rpm
C:-1440 rpm
D:-None of the above

Question66:-The rotor resistance and leakage reactance of an induction motor is and respectively. If the stator impedance is neglected, the maximum torque of an
induction motor occurs at a slip of
A:-Slip = /
B:-Slip = 0
C:-Slip = 1
D:-None of the above

Question67:-During blocked rotor test on induction motor, the power drawn by the motor is mainly for
A:-Copper loss and core loss
B:-Copper loss
C:-Core loss
D:-None of the above

Question68:-A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous condenser at
A:-Over excited
B:-Under excited
C:-Both (1) and (2)
D:-None of the above

Question69:-Prime mover for a salient pole synchronous generator is
A:-Steam turbine
B:-Hydro turbine
C:-(1) or (2)
D:-None of the above

Question70:-The maximum power output of a synchronous generator having synchronous reactance of X, generated emf E and terminal voltage V is
A:-EV/X
B:- v²/ X
C:-E² /X
D:-None of the above

Question71:-Identify the true statement from the following with respect to distance relays
A:-Mho relay is more appropriate for protection of short transmission lines
B:-Impedance relay is more appropriate for protection of medium transmission lines
C:-Reactance relay is more appropriate for protection of long transmission lines
D:-Mho relay is highly affected due to power swings

Question72:-An IDMT relay has a current setting of 150%. The relay is connected in the circuit through a CT having ratio 400/5. If the fault current in relay coil is 4800,
Obtain the plug setting multiplier
A:-2
B:-4
C:-8
D:-16

Question73:-The synchronous reactance of a 4000 MVA, 10 kV synchronous generator is 0.1 p.u. Determine the synchronous reactance on the base values of
1000 MVA, 20 kV.
A:-0.01 25 p.u
B:-6.25 x p.u.
C:-0.1 p.u.
D:-None of the above

Question74:-Consider the following statements
(1)   Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is experienced when it is at full load at unity power factor
(2) Bundled conductors are employed to improve the mechanical stability of the transmission line
(3) Skin effect lessens the effective area of cross-section of the conductor and hence increases its effective resistance
(4) The proximity effect is lesser for stranded conductors than solid conductors
Which of the statements are correct?
A:-1, 2 and 3
B:-2 and 3
C:-3 and 4
D:-All of the above

Question75:-Power loss due to corona does not depend on
A:-Diameter of the conductor
B:-Height of the conductor
C:-Spacing between conductors
D:-Line voltage

Question76:-In symmetrical components, the operator 'a' rotates the vector through _____________ in the __________ direction.
A:-90°, clockwise
B:-90°, anti-clockwise
C:-120°, clockwise
D:-120°, anti-clockwise

Question77:-The various power system faults are
1. Single Line to Ground fault (LG)
2. Line to Line fault (LL)
3. Double line to Ground fault (LLG) and
4. Three phase faults (LLL/LLLG)
If these faults are arranged in the order of increasing severity is
A:-1, 2, 3, 4
B:-3, 4, 1, 2
C:-4, 3, 2, 1
D:-4, 3, 1, 2

Question78:-If A represents value of steady state stability limit and B represents
value of transient stability limit, which one of the following expression is true?
A:-A > B
B:-A = B
C:-A < B
D:-A + B = 1

Question79:-A three phase OHT line has its conductors horizontally spaced with spacing equal to d between adjacent conductors. If the conductors of the line are
re-arranged to form an equilateral triangle of sides equal to d; then
A:-Average capacitance as well as average inductance will increase
B:-Average capacitance will decrease but the average inductance will increase
C:-Average capacitance will increase but the average inductance will decrease
D:-Average capacitance as well as average inductance will decrease

Question80:-In a three unit insulator, the voltage stress across at the bottom most unit is found to be 33.33 kV. Given that the string efficiency is 66.66%. Evaluate the
total voltage across the whole unit.
A:-50.0 kV
B:-11.11 kV
C:-33.33 kV
D:-66.66 kV

Question81:-The maximum percentage error in the sum of two voltage measurements when ±1% and ±5% is
A:-1.8%
B:-2.6%
C:-3.2%
D:-2.2%

Question82:-A moving coil of a meter has 200 turns, and a length and depth of 10 mm and 20 mm respectively. It is positioned in a uniform radial flux density of 300
mT. The coil carries a current of 60 mA. The torque on the coil is
A:-520 µNm
B:-620 µNm
C:-720 µNm
D:-820 µNm

Question83:-The inductance of a certain moving iron ammeter is expressed as.The control spring torque is Nm/radian. The deflection in radians for
a current of 3A is
A:-5.33
B:-2.73
C:-3.73
D:-3.33

Question84:-Ratio of readings of two wattmeter connected to measure power in a balanced 3-phase load is 2:1 and the load is inductive. The power factor of load is
A:-0.6 lag
B:-0.707 lag
C:-0.866 lag
D:-0.8 lag

Question85:-Assertion (A) :   It is always desirable to take the reading of anindicating instrument very close to the full scale reading Reason (R) : Accuracy of an indicating instrument is maximum at the full scale deflection and error increases as reading comes closer to the beginning of the scale
A:-A is true but R is false
B:-A is false but R is true
C:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D:-Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question86
:-The coil of a moving iron instrument has a resistance of 500 ohm and inductance of 1H. It reads 200 V when a 200 V DC is applied. It series resistance is 1000 ohms its reading when fed by 200 V, 50 Hz AC will almost be
A:-196 V
B:-192 V
C:-202 V
D:-204 V

Question87:-Assertion (A) : A low power factor wattmeter has special constructional features to ensure accurate measurement
Reason (R) : Extension of wattmeter range in DC circuit can be easily done by using current and potential transformer
A:-A is true but R is false
B:-A is false but R is true
C:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D:-Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question88:-To the 'y' input of a CRO a signal defined by 10sin(100t) is applied. To the 'x' input a signal 10cos(100t) is fed. The gain for both x-channel and y-channel
is the same. The screen shows
A:-sinusoidal waveform
B:-Circle
C:-Ellipse
D:-Straight line

Question89:-The meter constant of a single phase 240V induction watt-hour meter is 800 revolutions per KWh. The speed in rpm of the meter disc for a current of 20
Amperes and 0.8 p.f. lagging will be
A:-47.6
B:-57.6
C:-41.2
D:-51.2

Question90:-Two holes are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle in the disc of energy meter to
A:-increase ventilation
B:-increase its braking torque
C:-increase its deflecting torque

Question91:-What type of transudcer is an LVDT?
A:-Resistive
B:-Capacitive
C:-Inductive
D:-Optical

Question92:-A LVDT has a stroke length of ±100mm and produces a resolution of 25mV/mm when moved. Determine the output voltage when the core is moved 120
mm from its null position.
A:-3.0 V
B:-4.0 V
C:-2.5 V
D:-5.0 V

Question93:-The instrument which is used to measure the specific gravity to battery electrolyte?
A:-Hygrometer
B:-Hydrometer
C:-Barometer
D:-Anemometer

Question94:-Which transducer is used for measurement of magnetic field?
A:-Inductive
B:-LVDT
C:-Hygrometer
D:-Hall effect

Question95:-A trickle charger for a storage battery assists in
A:-Maintain proper electrolyte level
B:-Increase its reverse capacity
C:-Prevent sulphation
D:-Keep it fresh and fully charged

Question96:-As per recommendation of ISI the maximum load that can be connected in one sub circuit is
A:-800 watts
B:-1000 watts
C:-1600 watts
D:-500 watts

Question97:-What is the minimum required length of pipe in a pipe electrode earthing system?
A:-5.0m
B:-1.5m
C:-2.0m
D:-2.5m

Question98:-The luminous intensity of 200 W unidirectional bulb is 150 candela. The total luminous flux emitted from the bulb is
A:-600 lumen
B:-600 lumen
C:-300 lumen
D:-300 lumen

Question99:-What is the average illumination in a room with an area of illuminated by four numbers of 100-W lamps with a luminous efficiency of 80 lumens/W and a coefficient of utilization of 0.65?
A:-264 lux
B:-100 lux
C:-832 lux
D:-524 lux