Name of Post: Assistant Engineer (Civil)/ Head Draftsman

Department: Irrigation/ LSGD/ KSHB/ KTDC

Cat.No: 210/2019, 125/2020, 126/2020, 191/2020, 005/2021, 028/2021, 128/2021, 134/2021, 206/2021

Date of Test: 28.10.2021

Question Code:  102/21

2. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 2.5 mPa and – 2.0 mPa respectively. The maximum shear force at the point is
A) Zero
B) 0.25 mPa
C) 2.05 mPa
D) 2.25 mPa

3. A cantilever beam of 5 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m throughout the span. What is the maximum bending moment ?
A) 125 kNm
B) 150 kNm
C) 175 kNm
d) 200 kNm

5. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length to
A) Actual length
C) Factor of safety
d) direct stress

7. What is the maximum positive shear force at the quarter span at section C from left end when a uniformly distributed load longer than the span of intensity 20 kN/m
crosses the span of 12 m ?
A) 50 kN
B) 57.5 kN
C) 60 kN
D) 67.5 kN

9. The point of contraflexure is the point where
A) Shear forces changes the sign
B) Shear force minimum
C) Bending moment changes the sign
D) Bending moment maximum

10. In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at any joint is always
A) Zero
B) less than 1
C) 1
D) Greater than 1

11. What is the depth of a point below water surface in sea where the pressure intensity is 1.006 mPa ? Take specific gravity of sea water = 1.026 and specific weight of water as 9810 N/m3.
A) Zero
B) 9.81 m
C) 49.05 m
D) 100 m

12. A uniform wooden cylinder has a specific gravity of 0.8. Find the ratio of submerged height to length of the cylinder so that it will just float upright in a state of neutral equilibrium in water.
A) 0.4
B) 0.53
C) 0.8
d) 1.0

14. A triangular V-notch channel is conveying a discharge of 0.7 m3/s. If the percentage error in measuring the head is 1.2%, the percentage error in discharge is
A) 1.2%
B) 1.4%
C) 2.2%
D) 3.0%

16. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 15 cm.depth-area-duration curve indicates that for the same area, maximum average depth for a 3 hours storm will be
A) 7.5 cm
B) less than 7.5 cm
C) 15 cm
D) more than 15 cm

17. If the depth is 7.24 cm on a field over a base period of 12 days, then the duty is
A) 100 hectare per cumec
B) 1242 hectare per cumec
C) 1432 hectare per cumec
d) 1724 hectare per cumec

18. The intensity of irrigation is the
A) Percentage of gross command area to be irrigated annually
B) Percentage of culturable command area to be irrigated annually
C) Percentage of minimum land area to be irrigated annually
d) Percentage of total land area to be irrigated annually

19. A channel designed by lacey’s theory has a velocity of 1.5 m/s. If the silt factor is 1.0, then the hydraulic mean radius of the channel is
A) 3.75 m
B) 4.25 m
C) 4.50 m
d) 4.75 m

20. Total capacity of a reservoir is 8000000 m3 and dead storage is 8000 m3. If average volume of sediment deposition is 100 m3/year, the usefullness of the reservoir will start reducing after
A) 20 years
B) 40 years
C) 80 years
d) 160 years

21. The value of property or structure becomes less, by its becoming out of date in style, in structural design etc., which is termed as
A) Capital cost
B) Salvage value
C) Obsolescence
d) loss of rent

22. Book value is the amount shown in the account book after allowing necessary
A) Taxes
B) Scrap value
C) depreciation
d) loss of rent

23. The Polar axis of earth is shorter than Equatorial axis by
A) 42.95 m
B) 95.42 m
C) 43.5 km
d) 142.95 km

24. Error due to atmospheric refraction is known as _______ in levelling.
A) Instrumental error
B) Natural error
C) Personal error
d) Error in sighting

25. _______ is a branch of angular surveying in which the horizontal and vertical distances
of points are obtained by optical means.
A) Resection
B) Traversing
C) Tacheometry

26. In the case of Prismoidal formula, it is necessary to have _______ number of sectional
areas.
A) Even numbers
B) Odd numbers
C) maximum 100
d) minimum 3

27. The amount of money including whole annual interest at the prevailing rate of interest,
which is equal to the net income from the property is
A) Capitalised value
B) Reteable value
C) Annuity
d) Book value

28. A person who takes the lease is known as
A) leaser
B) lessee
C) Owner
d) Short term owner

29. minimum grade of Concrete for RCC as per IS 456 : 2000 is
A) m10
B) m15
C) m20
d) m25

30. minimum Cement content required for m20 grade concrete in RCC is
A) 260 kg/m3
B) 300 kg/m3
C) 320 kg/m3
d) 340 kg/m3

31. Which of the phases in the concrete microstructure exercise the greatest influence
on mechanical properties of the concrete ?
A) Coarse aggregate
B) Interfacial transition zone
C) Hydrated cement paste
d) Fine aggregate

32. Needle shaped solids which appear during the hydration of cement in its microstructure
level is called
A) Ettringite
B) Belite
C) Calcium Silicate Hydrate
d) Calcium Hydroxide

33. Slump value for concrete, accepted for ordinary RCC work is
A) 150 mm
B) 25 mm
C) 30 mm
D) 100 mm

34. Which of these cracks are due to externally applied loads and not intrinsic to concrete ?
A) Plastic Cracks
B) Early Age Thermal Cracks
C) drying Shrinkage Cracks
D) None of the above

35. Among tests used for finding tensile strength of concrete, which of the following test
will give largest numerical value ?
A) direct tension test
B) Split tensile test
C) Flexure test
d) All of the above show the same result

36. maximum carbon content for medium carbon steel
A) 0.7%
B) 0.8%
C) 0.9%
d) 1%

37. The vertical component of a panelled door on which the lock and aldrop is placed is
called
A) lock Rail
B) lock Style
C) lock Panel
d) mid Rail

38. As per IS 399:1963 “Classification of Commercial Timbers and Their Zonal distribution”, weight per cubic metre of various timber is standardised at ____ moisture content.
A) 6%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 12%

40. Innermost Central Portion of a tree is
A) Pith
B) Heartwood
C) Sapwood
d) Cambium layer

41. during the setting and early hardening period (first 24 hrs.) of Portland cement, the
Heat liberation Rate
A) Increases linearly from zero to peak
B) Peaks at the start, then decreases before increasing again to second peak and then decreasing again
C) Starts near zero at the start and gradually increases to peak and then decreases
d) Peaks at the start, then keeps decreasing

42. Which of the following is not a mineral admixture ?
A) Fly ash
B) Silica fume
C) Rice husk ash
D) Superplasticizer

43. In ferrocement construction, what is the reinforcement ?
A) 8 mm rod
B) 6 mm rod
C) 4 mm rod
D) Wire-mesh

44. Out of Court dispute resolution in construction project, does not include
A) Arbitration
B) Conciliation
C) mediation
D) litigation

45. TmT in TmT steel bar stands for
A) Thermo mechanically Treated
B) Twisted mild Tempered
C) Temperature maintained Twisted
d) Torsion maintained and Treated

46. The following is not the direct cost of accident
A) medical care expense
C) Workman’s compensation cost
D) Cost of slowdown in operation

47. The compound responsible for early setting time of cement is
A) Tricalcium aluminate
B) dicalcium silicate
C) Tricalcium silicate
d) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

48. In construction material management and procurement, what is the planned wastage for cement ?
A) 2%
B) 5%
C) 10%
d) 3%

49. Which of the following is not related to Quality Assurance in Construction ?
A) Concrete mix design
B) Sampling testing of steel
C) Testing of cement
D) Sampling of concrete during placing

50. Total indirect cost of a project includes
A) Overheads + Outage Loss + Labour Charge
C) Outage Loss + Managerial Cost
d) Stationary Cost + Office Cost

51. As per IS 456, ‘pedestal’ is a vertical compression member whose effective length is
A) less than two times its least lateral dimension
B) less than three times its least lateral dimension
C) less than four times its least lateral dimension
d) less than twelve times its least lateral dimension

52. Shear strength of a reinforced concrete beam depends on
A) Steel reinforcement
B) Area of cross section
D) All the above

53. As per IS 456, the maximum cross-sectional area of longitudinal bars in an RCC column with gross area Ag is
A) 6% of Ag
B) 5% of Ag
C) 3% of Ag
d) 1% of Ag

56. The ratio of design strength of a tied reinforced RCC column to a spiral reinforced
RCC column is
A) 0.95
B) 1.0
C) 1.10
D) 1.15

57. For a column with diameter 180 mm and reinforcing bars 12 mm, minimum possible
clear cover is
A) 20 mm
B) 25 mm
C) 30 mm
D) 40 mm

58. As per IS 456 the structure shall have a factor of safety against sliding not less
than
A) 1.2
B) 1.3
C) 1.4
D) 1.5

59. For braced columns, the effective length is between
A) l and 2l
B) 0.5l and 2l
C) 0.5l and l
D) 0.5l and 1.5l

60. An RCC water tank to be designed for a volume of 25 m3, not located in coastal area.As per Indian standards, the minimum possible grade of concrete is
A) m20
B) m25
C) m30
d) m35

61. As per IS 3370, parts of RCC structure retaining the liquid or enclosing the space above the liquid shall be considered as subject to at least
A) mild exposure condition
B) moderate exposure condition
C) Severe exposure condition
D) Very severe exposure condition

62. The minimum reinforcement required for RCC tank walls, using mild steel is
A) 0.64%
B) 0.35%
C) 0.15%
d) 0.12%

63. The minimum eccentricity to be considered in the design of a long RCC column is
A) 25 mm
B) 20 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 5 mm

64. For pre-tensioned prestressed concrete, the grade of concrete shall be not less
than
A) m45
B) m40
C) m35
D) m30

65. Which of the following is not a cause for immediate loss in the case of prestressed concrete ?
A) Elastic shortening
B) Friction
C) Anchorage slip
D) Relaxation

67. The level of prestressing in a beam is such that no tensile stress is allowed in concrete
under service loads. As per IS : 1343 classification, the beam is
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Type 4

68. In a bolted connection, the centre-to-centre distance between individual fasteners in
a line, in the direction of load is called
A) Gauge distance
B) Edge distance
C) Pitch
D) limiting distance

69. As per IS 800, the partial safety factor for materials γm is in the range
A) 1.1 to 1.5
B) 1.0 to 1.25
C) 1.25 to 2.0
d) 1.0 to 1.5

70. When the length of a connection increases, the shear lag effect
A) Increases
B) Reduces
C) Has no change
d) None of the above

71. Geometric increase method of population forecasting is based on the assumption that
A) Growth rate is progressively increasing
B) Growth rate is constant
C) Percentage growth rate is increasing
D) Percentage growth rate is constant

72. Hardy-Cross Method consists of assuming a distribution of flow in the network in such a way that
A) The principle of continuity is satisfied at each joint
B) The principle of continuity is satisfied at each junction
C) There can be discontinuity in pressure
d) There can be discontinuity in velocity

73. In Slow Sand Filters the effective size of filter sand ranges between
A) 4 to 4.75 mm
B) 2 to 4 mm
C) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
d) 0.05 to 0.1 mm

74. The equalization tanks are provided
A) To balance the head loss
B) For removing bigger suspended matter in sewage
C) To balance fluctuating flows or concentrations
D) None of the above

75. Which of the following is not a method for disinfection ?
A) Boiling
B) Ozone treatment
C) Chlorination
D) Flocculation

76. Population equivalent is a measure of
A) Population growth
B) Purity of water
C) Strength of sewage
D) None of the above

77. Aquatic life in a stream begin to be reduced as dissolved oxygen drops below
A) 0.4 mg/l
B) 4 mg/l
C) 10 mg/l
D) 12 mg/l

79. In an Imhoff tank, the incoming sewage is
A) Allowed to mix with settled sludge
B) Not allowed to mix with settled sludge
C) Allowed to mix with activated sludge
D) Not allowed to mix with activated sludge

80. In an upflow anaerobic sludge blanket reactor, the ratio of reactor volume (V) to flow
rate (Q) is called
A) Hydraulic Retention Time
B) Solid Retention Time
C) Sludge Retention Time
D) Blanket Retention Time

81. determine the coefficient of permeability of soil (mm/s) in a constant head permeability
test, in which the distance between piezometer tappings is 120 mm, area of the test sample is 100 mm2 and the difference of water levels in the piezometers is 60 mm. 600 ml of water is collected in 300 seconds during the test.
A) 0.01
B) 0.04
C) 0.06
D) 0.09

82. Find the effective stress at the bottom of a sand deposit of thickness 8 m. Water table is at the middle of the sand deposit. Take γ = 18 kN/m3, γsat = 20 kN/m3,
γw = 10 kN/m3.
A) 152
B) 132
C) 112
D) 102

83. A clay layer 6 m thick is subjected to a pressure of 60 kN/m2. If the layer has a double
drainage and undergoes 50% consolidation in one year, determine the coefficient of consolidation in m2/year. Take Tv = 0.196.
A) 1.764
B) 1.250
C) 0.112
D) 0.156

84. Taylor’s stability charts are based on the total stresses using
A) Bishop’s method
B) Friction circle method
C) j = 0 analysis
D) None of the above

85. Curve joining points of equal stress intensity
A) Isotones
B) Isochrones
C) Isohyets
D) Isobars

86. What is the intensity of vertical stress in kN/m2 below a point load of 500 kN at a
depth of 5 m ?
A) 8.54
B) 10.43
C) 9.55
D) 6.22

87. determine the total lateral earth pressure at rest in kN on a retaining wall of height
5 m. Take γsoil = 17 kN/m3 and k0 = 0.5. Assume water table is below 5 m.
A) 106.25
B) 110.54
C) 102.32
D) 115.12

88. Which of the following are wrong among the assumptions of Terzaghi’s bearing
capacity theory ?
i. Base footing is smooth.
ii. Footing is laid at a shallow depth.
iii. Footing is short, i.e. : L/B ratio is finite.
A) (i) only
B) (ii) and (iii)
C) (i) and (iii)
D) (i) and (ii)

89. Which of the following assumption is wrong for the design of a strap footing ?
A) Strap is perfectly rigid
B) Interior footing is eccentrically loaded
C) Strap is weightless
D) Soil pressure is uniform beneath each individual footing

90. Vibroflotation technique is best suited for compacting
A) Clays
B) Silts
C) loose sandy soil
D) Organic soils

91. What is the lag distance required in meters to stop a vehicle moving at a design speed of 60 kmph, if the reaction time of the driver is 2.5 seconds ?
A) 50.5
B) 45.8
C) 35.5
D) 41.7

92. If a road has a width of 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 200 m, what is the mechanical widening required in meters on the curve ? Assume longest wheel base as 6 m.
A) 0.12
B) 0.18
C) 0.35
d) 0.43

93. What is the test temperature of ductility test of bitumen ?
A) 27° C
B) 25° C
C) 5° C
D) 40° C

94. If the mean of the maximum daily temperature is 47.54° C and mean of the average daily temperature is 25.25° C for the hottest month of the year, what is the Airport Reference Temperature ?
A) 40.25° C
B) 39.50° C
C) 27.15° C
D) 32.68° C

96. CBR method of flexible pavement design is based on
A) Strength parameter of subgrade soil
B) design traffic
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of the above

97. What is the basic capacity in veh./hr of a traffic lane with a design speed of 60 kmph and stopping sight distance of 54 m, if the average length of vehicles is assumed as 6 m ?
A) 500
B) 1500
C) 2000
D) 1000

98. Which are the airplane rules adopted for height zoning ?
A) 45° and 63.5°
B) 43° and 62.5°
C) 42° and 61.5°
D) 40° and 60.5°

99. Who gave the concept of “Garden City” with three magnets namely town magnet, country magnet and a third magnet with attractive features of both town and country ?
A) Sir Ebenezer Howard
B) Sir Patrick Geddess
C) Clarence Stein
D) Le Corbusier

100. Taxiway markings are painted with _____________ colour.
A) White
B) Red
C) Green
D) yellow