Assistant Surgeon/Casuality Medical Officer in Health Services Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Code: 027/2020

Medium of Question-English

Name of Post:Assistant Surgeon/Casuality Medical Officer  

Cat.No. 305/2019

Date of Test:12.09. 2020

 1. Which of the following muscle is supplied by Anterior Interosseous Nerve ?
 A) Flexor pollicis longus
 B) Extensor pollicis longus
 C) Flexor carpi radialis
 D) Brachialis

 2. From which of the following pharyngeal pouches the thymus develops ?
 A) First
 B) Second
 C) Third
 D) Fourth

 3. The structure passing through the gap between superior and middle constrictor is
 A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
 B) Auditory tube
 C) Superior laryngeal artery
 D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve

 4. Trapeziometacarpal joint belongs to which of the following types ?
 A) Ellipsoid
 B) Saddle
 C) Condylar
 D) Hinge

 5. In which of the following tissues insulin is required for glucose uptake ?
 A) Liver
 B) Adipose tissue
 C) Brain
 D) Erythrocytes

 6. Which of the following enzymes is dependent on pyridoxal phosphate ?
 A) Pyruvate carboxylase
 B) Ornithine decarboxylase
 C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
 D) Tyrosinase

 7. Enzyme activated by insulin is
 A) Lipoprotein lipase
 B) Hormone sensitive lipase
 C) Phospholipase A2
 D) Lingual lipase

 8. High anion gap metabolic acidosis can occur in the following conditions except
 A) Methanol poisoning
 B) Renal failure
 C) Lactic acidosis
 D) Renal tubular acidosis

 9. A 50 year old male was admitted in the ward with hemiplegia of left side which started as weakness. There is areflexia of upper limb and exaggerated reflexes on lower limb on left side. The most probable site of lesion could be
 A) at internal capsule
 B) a single lesion at C5-6 level
 C) a single lesion at mid thoracic level
 D) one lesion at cervical spine and another at lumbar region

 10. Select the correct statement regarding hypothyroidism
 A) Hypermotility in gastrointestinal system
 B) Preadipocyte fibroblasts release cytokines to produce myxedema
 C) Reaction time of stretch reflexes is prolonged
 D) Sclera becomes yellowish due to carotinemia

 11. Diarrhoeal symptoms in cholera epidemic is due to which of the following changes in intestinal transport ?
 A) Decrease in intracellular cAMP
 B) Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
 C) Inhibition of Na-K ATPase activity
 D) Reduction in NaCl absorption

 12. All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left except
 A) Decrease in carbondioxide level
 B) Decrease in temperature
 C) Increase in 2, 3 DPG
 D) Increase in pH

 13. Cooling of the body after death is known as
 A) Suggilation
 B) Cadaveric lividity
 C) Algor mortis
 D) Postmortem caloricity

 14. Tyre tread mark is an example of the following type of abrasion
 A) Pressure
 B) Linear
 C) Geaze
 D) Imprint

 15. Commonest cause for impotence in males
 A) Alcohol
 B) Vascular disease
 C) Scrotal hernias
 D) Developmental anomaly

 16. Section 174 CrPC deals with
 A) Dying declaration
 B) Examination of accused in sexual offence
 C) Inquest
 D) Trial-in-camera

 17. Western blotting is used for separation of
 C) Proteins
 D) None

 18. Scoring system followed for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is
 A) Bishop score
 B) Jadad score
 C) Nugents score
 D) Four score

 19. Transduction, transformation and conjugation are different methods of
 A) Gene transfer in bacteria
 B) Bacterial recombination
 C) Blotting techniques
 D) Antimicrobial susceptibility testing

 20. The infection transmitted by mite is
 A) Q fever
 B) Endemic typhus
 C) Babesiosis
 D) Scrub typhus

 21. Anticoagulant of choice for osmotic fragility test is
 B) Oxalate
 C) Heparin
 D) Citrate

 22. The histologic type of carcinoma breast with bad prognosis is
 A) Infiltrating duct carcinoma NOS
 B) Mucinous carcinoma breast
 C) Medullary carcinoma breast
 D) Tubular carcinoma
23. The microscopic features of sarcoidosis include all except
 A) Epitheloid granuloma
 B) Areas of caseation necrosis
 C) Asteroid bodies
 D) Schaumann bodies
24. Minimal change primary glomerular disease is characterized by
 A) Increased mesangial matrix
 B) Effacement of the foot processes of the padocytes
 C) Diffuse thickening of capillary wall
 D) Granular deposits along basement membrane

 25. Which of the following drugs is not associated with weight gain ?
 A) Olanzapine
 B) Oral contraceptive pills
 C) Cyproheptadine
 D) Metformin

 26. Exenatide is an example of
 A) A GLP-1 analogue
 B) A PPAR Gamma agonist
 C) A DPP-4 inhibitor
 D) An alpha glucosidase inhibitor

 27. The anti tubercular drug associated with optic neuritis is
 A) Rifampicin
 B) Pyrazinamide
 C) Ethambutol
 D) Isoniazid

 28. Raltegravir is
 A) A CCR 5 receptor inhibitor
 B) An integrase inhibitor
 C) A fusion inhibitor
 D) A protease inhibitor

 29. “Prevalence of low birth weight” is an indicator of which type of “Indicator of Health” ?
 A) Mortality Indicator
 B) Morbidity lndicator
 C) Nutritional lndicator
 D) Socio-economic Indicator

 30. Effective vaccine is available against all the following diseases except
 A) Kyasanur forest disease
 B) Yellow fever
 C) Leishmaniasis
 D) Typhoid fever

 31. “Hidden Hunger” refers to
 A) Malnutrition in hidden communities
 B) Hunger in remote areas
 C) Macronutrient deficiency in communities
 D) Micronutrient deficiency in communities

 32. Aedes mosquitoes transmit all of the following diseases except
 A) Yellow fever
 B) Rift Valley fever
 C) Chikungunya fever
 D) West Nile fever

 33. Which one of the following is the strongest study design ?
 A) Cohort
 B) Ecologic study
 C) Randomized controlled trial
 D) Non randomized controlled trial

 34. Which one of the following method is used to estimate chlorine demand of water ?
 A) Chloro meter
 B) Berkefeld filter
 C) Horrock’s apparatus
 D) Double pot method

 35. Which protein is considered as reference protein ?
 A) Chicken egg
 B) Fish
 C) Soya bean
 D) Goat flesh

 36. The denominator for maternal mortality ratio is
 A) Number of women in the reproductive age group
 B) Population of women in the area
 C) Number of pregnant woman
 D) Total number of live births

 37. HLA associated with uveitis of Behcet’s disease is
 A) HLA B 27
 C) HLAB 51

 38. All are signs of Trachoma except
 A) Herbert’s pits
 B) Horner Trantas spots
 C) Pannus
 D) Arlt’s Line

 39. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by using
 A) Slit lamp microscope
 B) Keratometer
 C) Specular microscope
 D) Pachymeter

 40. All are the features of Central Retinal artery occlusion except
 A) Cherry red spot at the macula
 B) Cattle trucking of veins
 C) Massive retinal haemorrhages
 D) Marked narrowing of retinal arteries

 41. Multiple perforation of tympanic membrane seen in
 A) Tubercular Otitis Media
 B) Syphilitic Otitis Media
 C) Aero Otitis Media
 D) Acute Necrotising Otitis Media

 42. Ostmann’s Pad of fat is related to
 A) Epiglottis
 B) Eustachian Tube
 C) Parotid Gland
 D) Orbit

 43. Recruitment test is positive in
 A) Otosclerosis
 B) Acoustic Neuroma
 C) Meniere’s Disease
 D) Glomus Tumour

 44. Rhinitis Medicamentosa is caused by prolonged use of
 A) Decongestant Nasal Drops
 B) Steroid Nasal Spray
 C) Saline Nasal Drops
 D) Both A) and B)

 45. Which is not a premalignant lesion of oral cavity ?
 A) Leukoplakia
 B) Erythroplakia
 C) Melanosis
 D) Ranula

 46. Mucocoele is most common in which sinus ?
 A) Ethmoid
 B) Maxillary
 C) Sphenoid
 D) Frontal

 47. Tear drop sign in X-ray is seen in
 A) Fracture zygoma
 B) Fracture mandible
 C) Blow out fracture orbit
 D) Fracture temporal bone

 48. Most common symptom of nasopharyngeal malignancy is
 A) Epistaxis
 B) Glue ear
 C) Trismus
 D) Cervical lymph node enlargement

 49. Ludwig’s angina is infection of which space ?
 A) Parotid
 B) Submandibular space
 C) Retropharyngeal space
 D) Mediastinum

 50. Most common site of lodgement of foreign body in throat is
 A) Tonsil
 B) Pyruform fossa
 C) Cricopharynx
 D) Epiglottis

 51. A simple measure to assess central obesity is
 A) Body mass index
 B) Waist hip ratio
 C) Mid arm circumference
 D) Neck to height ratio

 52. All are diagnostic criteria of Diabetes Mellitus except
 A) Fasting blood sugar > 126 mg%
 B) Post prandial blood sugar >180 mg%
 C) Random blood sugar > 200 mg% with symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus
 D) HbA1C > 6.5
53. Which test is best preferred to screen for Vitamin D deficiency ?
 A) 1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
 B) 1 hydroxycholecalciferol
 C) 25 hydroxycholecaIciferol
 D) 7 dehydro cholesterol

 54. Polyvalent anti snake venom in India is ineffective for envenomation with
 A) Russels viper
 B) Saw scaled viper
 C) Hump nosed pit viper
 D) Krait

 55. Antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
 A) N acetylcysteine
 B) Flumazenil
 C) Glutathione
 D) Tranexamic acid
56. Which is not a feature of progressive supranuclear palsy ?
 A) Extended posture
 B) Tremor minimal
 C) Gaze palsy
 D) Good response to antiparkinsonian drugs
57. Which is not an extra articular manifestation of Ankylosing spondylitis ?
 A) Iritis
 B) Aortic regurgitation
 C) Myelopathy
 D) Aortic stenosis
58. Anticentromere antibodies are positive in
 A) Systemic sclerosis
 B) CREST syndrome
 C) Sjogren’s syndrome
 D) Mixed connective tissue disease

 59. Not a precipitating cause of hepatic encephalopathy
 A) Uremia
 B) Sedatives
 C) Hyperkalemia
 D) Infection

 60. Not a nonspecific biochemical abnormality in hyperthyroidism
 A) Raised bilirubin
 B) Raised AST
 C) Raised gamma glutamyl transferase
 D) Hypocalcemia

 61. All are non neurological symptoms of Parkinsons disease except
 A) Hyposmia
 B) Hypohidrosis
 C) Hypophonia
 D) Painful lower limb cramps
62. Stimulus control therapy is related to
 A) lnsomnia
 B) Narcolepsy
 C) REM sleep disorder
 D) NREM sleep disorder
63. Non arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is associated with
 A) Clozapine
 B) Thioridazine
 C) Carbamazepine
 D) Sildenafil

 64. Lithium when combined with ECT can cause all except
 A) Delitium
 B) Serotonin syndrome
 C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
 D) Prolonged seizures

 65. The final active metabolite of diazepam is
 A) Lorazepam
 B) Temazepam
 C) Desmethyl Diazepam
 D) Oxazepam

 66. Name the test to assess feto-maternal hemorrhage.
 A) Indirect Coombs Test
 B) Direct Coombs Test
 C) Kleihauer-Betke Test
 D) None of the above
67. Human Placental Lactogen is produced by
 A) Syncitiotrophoblast
 B) Amnion
 C) Cytotrophoblast
 D) Pituitary
68. First manifestation of Magnesium Sulphate toxicity
 A) Respiratory depression
 B) Loss of patellar reflex
 C) Loss of ankle jerk
 D) Loss of knee jerk

 69. Clue cells are seen in
 A) Endometriosis
 B) Trichomonal infection
 C) Candidiasis
 D) Bacterial vaginosis

 70. Nikolsky sign is positive in
 A) Psoriasis
 B) Vitiligo
 C) Lichen Planus
 D) Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

 71. Impetigo herpetiformis is
 A) Generalised pustular psoriasis in pregnancy
 B) Generalised bullous impetigo
 C) Generalised herpes with secondary infection
 D) Pemphigus in pregnancy

 72. An adult male in the 5th decade, when presents with diffuse bronze pigmentation over skin, hepatic cirrhosis, diabetes, cardiac failure, arthritis, impotence, he is suffering from
 A) Wilson’s disease
 B) Neurofibromatosis
 C) Primary biliary cirrhosis
 D) Haemochromatosis

 73. Necrolytic migratory erythema is strongly associated with
 A) Alpha cell tumour of pancreas
 B) Beta cell tumour of pancreas
 C) Adenocarcinoma of pancreas
 D) Non-beta cell tumour of pancreas

 74. Regarding sodium metabolism, the following is not true.
 A) Sodium is the principal cation of extracellular fluid
 B) 47% of the sodium is in the bone
 C) Following trauma there is a variable period of increased sodium excretion
 D) For upto 48 hrs. following trauma there is increased adrenocortical activity

 75. Regarding allograft rejection all are true except
 A) Immunosuppressive therapy can prevent graft rejection
 B) Cytotoxic T cells, delayed hypersensitivity and antibody dependent mechanism, all play a role
 C) ABO blood group antigens are important antigens
 D) There are unique immunological mechanisms causing graft rejection

 76. Most common site of carcinoma lip is
 A) Vermilion border of upper lip
 B) Vermilion border of lower lip
 C) Commissure region
 D) Central 3rd of upper lip

 77. The sign of esophageal atresia
 A) Regurgitation of first and all subsequent feeds
 B) Continuous pouring of saliva from mouth
 C) Attachs of coughing and cyanosis
 D) Presence of hydramnios
78. Histamine is produced in the stomach by which of the following cells ?
 A) Parietal cell
 B) Chief cell
 C) D cell
 D) Enterochromaffin like cell (ECL-Cell)

 79. ‘Sunburst’ periosteal reaction is most commonly seen in
 A) Osteosarcoma
 B) Chondrosarcoma
 C) Aneurysmal bone cyst
 D) Ewing’s sarcoma
80. A characteristic narrowing and calcification of the intervertebral discs in radiographs is seen in
 A) Haemophilia
 B) Ochronosis
 C) Charcots joint
 D) Rheumatoid arthritis

 81. ‘Finsterer’s sign’ is pathognomonic of
 A) Tarsal coalition
 B) Keinbocks disease
 C) Osteochondritis of talus
 D) Carpal instability
82. “Nutcracker fracture” is a fracture of
 A) Talus
 B) Trapezoid
 C) Lunate
 D) Cuboid

 83. Mention a scale to assess spasticity
 A) Functional independence measure scale
 B) Ashworth scale
 C) Visual analogue scale
 D) Hamilton depression scale

 84. Botulinum toxin acts at the _____________ level.
 A) Muscle spindle level
 B) Neuronal level
 C) Neuronal sprouting level
 D) Neuromuscular junction level

 85. Reflex level center for the bladder is situated in the __________ area of the brain.
 A) Pons
 B) Medulla
 C) Thalamus
 D) Occiput

 86. Normal Ankle-brachial Index is
 A) 2.8 – 3.3
 B) 3.8 – 4.3
 C) 0.8 – 1.3
 D) 4.8 – 5.3

 87. Which of the following are the genes found to be involved in colorectal cancer ?
 A) MSH2 gene on chromosome 3
 B) MSH6 gene on chromosome 3
 C) MLH1 gene on chromosome 3
 D) MLH1 gene on chromosome 6

 88. In small cell carcinoma of the lung the usual chemotherapy is
 A) Paclitaxel + Carboplatin
 B) Cisplatin + Etoposide
 C) Pemetrexed + Cisplatin
 D) Vinorelbine + Platinum

 89. Which of the following drug is not an Aromatase inhibitor ?
 A) Tamoxifen
 B) Letrozole
 C) Anastrozole
 D) Exemestane

 90. What is the half-life of Cobalt 60 ?
 A) 3.5 years
 B) 1.5 years
 C) 15 years
 D) 5.3 years

 91. What is the average Photon energy of the most commonly used Brachytherapy source Iridium 192 (Ir192) ?
 A) 0.38 MV
 B) 0.83 MV
 C) 1.0 MV
 D) 1.3 MV

 92. Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agents have the lowest blood gas partition co-efficient ?
 A) Halothane
 B) Isofluvane
 C) Serofluvane
 D) Nitrous oxide

 93. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occur in
 A) Tissue hypoxemia
 B) Renal failure
 C) Intestinal obstruction
 D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
94. An ASAI patient in post operative recovery room shows pulse oximeter saturation reading of 74%. The corresponding arterial oxygen tension would be
 A) 30 mmHg
 B) 40 mmHg
 C) 50 mmHg
 D) 60 mmHg

 95. The most effective system for spontaneous respiration
 A) Mapleson A
 B) Mapleson B
 C) Mapleson D
 D) Mapleson E

 96. Features of vitamin D deficiency rickets include all of the following except
 A) Bitot spots
 B) Craniotabes
 C) Enlargement of the costochondral junctions
 D) Large anterior fontanel

 97. All of the following statements regarding cyclic vomiting are true except
 A) Episodes last 2-3 days
 B) There are 4 or more emesis episodes per hour
 C) It is a migraine equivalent
 D) It is associated with nystagmus
98. The most important extramedullary site of relapse in childhood all is
 A) Adrenal glands
 B) Central nervous system
 C) Kidney
 D) Lung

 99. A 7 day old male infant presents with a seizure. Serum glucose is 17 mg/dL. Examination is normal with the exception of jaundice and microphallus. The most likely diagnosis is
 A) Congenital toxoplasmosis
 B) Congenital hepatitis
 C) Congenital hypopituitarism
 D) Nonketotic hypoglycaemia
100. Causes of macrocephaly include all of the following except
 A) Congenital CMV infection
 B) Hydrocephalus
 C) Familial factors
 D) Chronic subdural effusions

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