Question Code: 027/2020
Medium of Question-English
Name of Post:Assistant Surgeon/Casuality Medical Officer
Cat.No. 305/2019
Date of Test:12.09. 2020
1. Which of the following muscle is supplied by Anterior Interosseous Nerve ?
A) Flexor pollicis longus
B) Extensor pollicis longus
C) Flexor carpi radialis
D) Brachialis
2. From which of the following pharyngeal pouches the thymus develops ?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
3. The structure passing through the gap between superior and middle constrictor is
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Auditory tube
C) Superior laryngeal artery
D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
4. Trapeziometacarpal joint belongs to which of the following types ?
A) Ellipsoid
B) Saddle
C) Condylar
D) Hinge
5. In which of the following tissues insulin is required for glucose uptake ?
A) Liver
B) Adipose tissue
C) Brain
D) Erythrocytes
6. Which of the following enzymes is dependent on pyridoxal phosphate ?
A) Pyruvate carboxylase
B) Ornithine decarboxylase
C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) Tyrosinase
7. Enzyme activated by insulin is
A) Lipoprotein lipase
B) Hormone sensitive lipase
C) Phospholipase A2
D) Lingual lipase
8. High anion gap metabolic acidosis can occur in the following conditions except
A) Methanol poisoning
B) Renal failure
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Renal tubular acidosis
9. A 50 year old male was admitted in the ward with hemiplegia of left side which started as weakness. There is areflexia of upper limb and exaggerated reflexes on lower limb on left side. The most probable site of lesion could be
A) at internal capsule
B) a single lesion at C5-6 level
C) a single lesion at mid thoracic level
D) one lesion at cervical spine and another at lumbar region
10. Select the correct statement regarding hypothyroidism
A) Hypermotility in gastrointestinal system
B) Preadipocyte fibroblasts release cytokines to produce myxedema
C) Reaction time of stretch reflexes is prolonged
D) Sclera becomes yellowish due to carotinemia
11. Diarrhoeal symptoms in cholera epidemic is due to which of the following changes in intestinal transport ?
A) Decrease in intracellular cAMP
B) Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
C) Inhibition of Na-K ATPase activity
D) Reduction in NaCl absorption
12. All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left except
A) Decrease in carbondioxide level
B) Decrease in temperature
C) Increase in 2, 3 DPG
D) Increase in pH
13. Cooling of the body after death is known as
A) Suggilation
B) Cadaveric lividity
C) Algor mortis
D) Postmortem caloricity
14. Tyre tread mark is an example of the following type of abrasion
A) Pressure
B) Linear
C) Geaze
D) Imprint
15. Commonest cause for impotence in males
A) Alcohol
B) Vascular disease
C) Scrotal hernias
D) Developmental anomaly
16. Section 174 CrPC deals with
A) Dying declaration
B) Examination of accused in sexual offence
C) Inquest
D) Trial-in-camera
17. Western blotting is used for separation of
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Proteins
D) None
18. Scoring system followed for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is
A) Bishop score
B) Jadad score
C) Nugents score
D) Four score
19. Transduction, transformation and conjugation are different methods of
A) Gene transfer in bacteria
B) Bacterial recombination
C) Blotting techniques
D) Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
20. The infection transmitted by mite is
A) Q fever
B) Endemic typhus
C) Babesiosis
D) Scrub typhus
21. Anticoagulant of choice for osmotic fragility test is
A) EDTA
B) Oxalate
C) Heparin
D) Citrate
22. The histologic type of carcinoma breast with bad prognosis is
A) Infiltrating duct carcinoma NOS
B) Mucinous carcinoma breast
C) Medullary carcinoma breast
D) Tubular carcinoma
23. The microscopic features of sarcoidosis include all except
A) Epitheloid granuloma
B) Areas of caseation necrosis
C) Asteroid bodies
D) Schaumann bodies
24. Minimal change primary glomerular disease is characterized by
A) Increased mesangial matrix
B) Effacement of the foot processes of the padocytes
C) Diffuse thickening of capillary wall
D) Granular deposits along basement membrane
25. Which of the following drugs is not associated with weight gain ?
A) Olanzapine
B) Oral contraceptive pills
C) Cyproheptadine
D) Metformin
26. Exenatide is an example of
A) A GLP-1 analogue
B) A PPAR Gamma agonist
C) A DPP-4 inhibitor
D) An alpha glucosidase inhibitor
27. The anti tubercular drug associated with optic neuritis is
A) Rifampicin
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Ethambutol
D) Isoniazid
28. Raltegravir is
A) A CCR 5 receptor inhibitor
B) An integrase inhibitor
C) A fusion inhibitor
D) A protease inhibitor
29. “Prevalence of low birth weight” is an indicator of which type of “Indicator of Health” ?
A) Mortality Indicator
B) Morbidity lndicator
C) Nutritional lndicator
D) Socio-economic Indicator
30. Effective vaccine is available against all the following diseases except
A) Kyasanur forest disease
B) Yellow fever
C) Leishmaniasis
D) Typhoid fever
31. “Hidden Hunger” refers to
A) Malnutrition in hidden communities
B) Hunger in remote areas
C) Macronutrient deficiency in communities
D) Micronutrient deficiency in communities
32. Aedes mosquitoes transmit all of the following diseases except
A) Yellow fever
B) Rift Valley fever
C) Chikungunya fever
D) West Nile fever
33. Which one of the following is the strongest study design ?
A) Cohort
B) Ecologic study
C) Randomized controlled trial
D) Non randomized controlled trial
34. Which one of the following method is used to estimate chlorine demand of water ?
A) Chloro meter
B) Berkefeld filter
C) Horrock’s apparatus
D) Double pot method
35. Which protein is considered as reference protein ?
A) Chicken egg
B) Fish
C) Soya bean
D) Goat flesh
36. The denominator for maternal mortality ratio is
A) Number of women in the reproductive age group
B) Population of women in the area
C) Number of pregnant woman
D) Total number of live births
37. HLA associated with uveitis of Behcet’s disease is
A) HLA B 27
B) HLA-DW5
C) HLAB 51
D) HLA DR4
38. All are signs of Trachoma except
A) Herbert’s pits
B) Horner Trantas spots
C) Pannus
D) Arlt’s Line
39. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by using
A) Slit lamp microscope
B) Keratometer
C) Specular microscope
D) Pachymeter
40. All are the features of Central Retinal artery occlusion except
A) Cherry red spot at the macula
B) Cattle trucking of veins
C) Massive retinal haemorrhages
D) Marked narrowing of retinal arteries
41. Multiple perforation of tympanic membrane seen in
A) Tubercular Otitis Media
B) Syphilitic Otitis Media
C) Aero Otitis Media
D) Acute Necrotising Otitis Media
42. Ostmann’s Pad of fat is related to
A) Epiglottis
B) Eustachian Tube
C) Parotid Gland
D) Orbit
43. Recruitment test is positive in
A) Otosclerosis
B) Acoustic Neuroma
C) Meniere’s Disease
D) Glomus Tumour
44. Rhinitis Medicamentosa is caused by prolonged use of
A) Decongestant Nasal Drops
B) Steroid Nasal Spray
C) Saline Nasal Drops
D) Both A) and B)
45. Which is not a premalignant lesion of oral cavity ?
A) Leukoplakia
B) Erythroplakia
C) Melanosis
D) Ranula
46. Mucocoele is most common in which sinus ?
A) Ethmoid
B) Maxillary
C) Sphenoid
D) Frontal
47. Tear drop sign in X-ray is seen in
A) Fracture zygoma
B) Fracture mandible
C) Blow out fracture orbit
D) Fracture temporal bone
48. Most common symptom of nasopharyngeal malignancy is
A) Epistaxis
B) Glue ear
C) Trismus
D) Cervical lymph node enlargement
49. Ludwig’s angina is infection of which space ?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular space
C) Retropharyngeal space
D) Mediastinum
50. Most common site of lodgement of foreign body in throat is
A) Tonsil
B) Pyruform fossa
C) Cricopharynx
D) Epiglottis
51. A simple measure to assess central obesity is
A) Body mass index
B) Waist hip ratio
C) Mid arm circumference
D) Neck to height ratio
52. All are diagnostic criteria of Diabetes Mellitus except
A) Fasting blood sugar > 126 mg%
B) Post prandial blood sugar >180 mg%
C) Random blood sugar > 200 mg% with symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus
D) HbA1C > 6.5
53. Which test is best preferred to screen for Vitamin D deficiency ?
A) 1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
B) 1 hydroxycholecalciferol
C) 25 hydroxycholecaIciferol
D) 7 dehydro cholesterol
54. Polyvalent anti snake venom in India is ineffective for envenomation with
A) Russels viper
B) Saw scaled viper
C) Hump nosed pit viper
D) Krait
55. Antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
A) N acetylcysteine
B) Flumazenil
C) Glutathione
D) Tranexamic acid
56. Which is not a feature of progressive supranuclear palsy ?
A) Extended posture
B) Tremor minimal
C) Gaze palsy
D) Good response to antiparkinsonian drugs
57. Which is not an extra articular manifestation of Ankylosing spondylitis ?
A) Iritis
B) Aortic regurgitation
C) Myelopathy
D) Aortic stenosis
58. Anticentromere antibodies are positive in
A) Systemic sclerosis
B) CREST syndrome
C) Sjogren’s syndrome
D) Mixed connective tissue disease
59. Not a precipitating cause of hepatic encephalopathy
A) Uremia
B) Sedatives
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Infection
60. Not a nonspecific biochemical abnormality in hyperthyroidism
A) Raised bilirubin
B) Raised AST
C) Raised gamma glutamyl transferase
D) Hypocalcemia
61. All are non neurological symptoms of Parkinsons disease except
A) Hyposmia
B) Hypohidrosis
C) Hypophonia
D) Painful lower limb cramps
62. Stimulus control therapy is related to
A) lnsomnia
B) Narcolepsy
C) REM sleep disorder
D) NREM sleep disorder
63. Non arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is associated with
A) Clozapine
B) Thioridazine
C) Carbamazepine
D) Sildenafil
64. Lithium when combined with ECT can cause all except
A) Delitium
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D) Prolonged seizures
65. The final active metabolite of diazepam is
A) Lorazepam
B) Temazepam
C) Desmethyl Diazepam
D) Oxazepam
66. Name the test to assess feto-maternal hemorrhage.
A) Indirect Coombs Test
B) Direct Coombs Test
C) Kleihauer-Betke Test
D) None of the above
67. Human Placental Lactogen is produced by
A) Syncitiotrophoblast
B) Amnion
C) Cytotrophoblast
D) Pituitary
68. First manifestation of Magnesium Sulphate toxicity
A) Respiratory depression
B) Loss of patellar reflex
C) Loss of ankle jerk
D) Loss of knee jerk
69. Clue cells are seen in
A) Endometriosis
B) Trichomonal infection
C) Candidiasis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
70. Nikolsky sign is positive in
A) Psoriasis
B) Vitiligo
C) Lichen Planus
D) Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
71. Impetigo herpetiformis is
A) Generalised pustular psoriasis in pregnancy
B) Generalised bullous impetigo
C) Generalised herpes with secondary infection
D) Pemphigus in pregnancy
72. An adult male in the 5th decade, when presents with diffuse bronze pigmentation over skin, hepatic cirrhosis, diabetes, cardiac failure, arthritis, impotence, he is suffering from
A) Wilson’s disease
B) Neurofibromatosis
C) Primary biliary cirrhosis
D) Haemochromatosis
73. Necrolytic migratory erythema is strongly associated with
A) Alpha cell tumour of pancreas
B) Beta cell tumour of pancreas
C) Adenocarcinoma of pancreas
D) Non-beta cell tumour of pancreas
74. Regarding sodium metabolism, the following is not true.
A) Sodium is the principal cation of extracellular fluid
B) 47% of the sodium is in the bone
C) Following trauma there is a variable period of increased sodium excretion
D) For upto 48 hrs. following trauma there is increased adrenocortical activity
75. Regarding allograft rejection all are true except
A) Immunosuppressive therapy can prevent graft rejection
B) Cytotoxic T cells, delayed hypersensitivity and antibody dependent mechanism, all play a role
C) ABO blood group antigens are important antigens
D) There are unique immunological mechanisms causing graft rejection
76. Most common site of carcinoma lip is
A) Vermilion border of upper lip
B) Vermilion border of lower lip
C) Commissure region
D) Central 3rd of upper lip
77. The sign of esophageal atresia
A) Regurgitation of first and all subsequent feeds
B) Continuous pouring of saliva from mouth
C) Attachs of coughing and cyanosis
D) Presence of hydramnios
78. Histamine is produced in the stomach by which of the following cells ?
A) Parietal cell
B) Chief cell
C) D cell
D) Enterochromaffin like cell (ECL-Cell)
79. ‘Sunburst’ periosteal reaction is most commonly seen in
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Aneurysmal bone cyst
D) Ewing’s sarcoma
80. A characteristic narrowing and calcification of the intervertebral discs in radiographs is seen in
A) Haemophilia
B) Ochronosis
C) Charcots joint
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
81. ‘Finsterer’s sign’ is pathognomonic of
A) Tarsal coalition
B) Keinbocks disease
C) Osteochondritis of talus
D) Carpal instability
82. “Nutcracker fracture” is a fracture of
A) Talus
B) Trapezoid
C) Lunate
D) Cuboid
83. Mention a scale to assess spasticity
A) Functional independence measure scale
B) Ashworth scale
C) Visual analogue scale
D) Hamilton depression scale
84. Botulinum toxin acts at the _____________ level.
A) Muscle spindle level
B) Neuronal level
C) Neuronal sprouting level
D) Neuromuscular junction level
85. Reflex level center for the bladder is situated in the __________ area of the brain.
A) Pons
B) Medulla
C) Thalamus
D) Occiput
86. Normal Ankle-brachial Index is
A) 2.8 – 3.3
B) 3.8 – 4.3
C) 0.8 – 1.3
D) 4.8 – 5.3
87. Which of the following are the genes found to be involved in colorectal cancer ?
A) MSH2 gene on chromosome 3
B) MSH6 gene on chromosome 3
C) MLH1 gene on chromosome 3
D) MLH1 gene on chromosome 6
88. In small cell carcinoma of the lung the usual chemotherapy is
A) Paclitaxel + Carboplatin
B) Cisplatin + Etoposide
C) Pemetrexed + Cisplatin
D) Vinorelbine + Platinum
89. Which of the following drug is not an Aromatase inhibitor ?
A) Tamoxifen
B) Letrozole
C) Anastrozole
D) Exemestane
90. What is the half-life of Cobalt 60 ?
A) 3.5 years
B) 1.5 years
C) 15 years
D) 5.3 years
91. What is the average Photon energy of the most commonly used Brachytherapy source Iridium 192 (Ir192) ?
A) 0.38 MV
B) 0.83 MV
C) 1.0 MV
D) 1.3 MV
92. Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agents have the lowest blood gas partition co-efficient ?
A) Halothane
B) Isofluvane
C) Serofluvane
D) Nitrous oxide
93. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occur in
A) Tissue hypoxemia
B) Renal failure
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis
94. An ASAI patient in post operative recovery room shows pulse oximeter saturation reading of 74%. The corresponding arterial oxygen tension would be
A) 30 mmHg
B) 40 mmHg
C) 50 mmHg
D) 60 mmHg
95. The most effective system for spontaneous respiration
A) Mapleson A
B) Mapleson B
C) Mapleson D
D) Mapleson E
96. Features of vitamin D deficiency rickets include all of the following except
A) Bitot spots
B) Craniotabes
C) Enlargement of the costochondral junctions
D) Large anterior fontanel
97. All of the following statements regarding cyclic vomiting are true except
A) Episodes last 2-3 days
B) There are 4 or more emesis episodes per hour
C) It is a migraine equivalent
D) It is associated with nystagmus
98. The most important extramedullary site of relapse in childhood all is
A) Adrenal glands
B) Central nervous system
C) Kidney
D) Lung
99. A 7 day old male infant presents with a seizure. Serum glucose is 17 mg/dL. Examination is normal with the exception of jaundice and microphallus. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Congenital toxoplasmosis
B) Congenital hepatitis
C) Congenital hypopituitarism
D) Nonketotic hypoglycaemia
100. Causes of macrocephaly include all of the following except
A) Congenital CMV infection
B) Hydrocephalus
C) Familial factors
D) Chronic subdural effusions
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