Laboratory Attender Questions and Answers

Question Code: 004/2024
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Laboratory Attender
Department: Homoeopathy
Cat. Number: 200/2023
Date of Test : 05.01.2024

1. Bilirubinuria is not seen in :
(A) Dubin Johnson Syndrome
(B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Haemolytic jaundice
(D) Hepatocellular jaundice

2. Name the condition where polymorphs are predominant in CSF :
(A) Tuberculosis meningitis
(B) Bacterial meningitis
(C) Viral meningitis
(D) Cryptococcal meningitis

3. Colour of urine in alkaptonuria is :
(A) Milky
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) Brownish black

4. Which of the following is a carcinogen?
(A) O – Toluidine
(B) Naphthylamine
(C) Nitrosamines
(D) All of the above

5. Pick out the odd one from the following :

6. Occult blood in stool is positive in :
(A) Carcinoma of GIT
(B) Hookworm infection
(C) Peptic ulcer
(D) All of the above

7. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in serum sample :
(A) Flame photometer
(B) Spectro photometer
(C) Colorimeter
(D) Fluorimeter

8. Urine crystal resembling fern-leaf shape :
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Triple phosphate
(C) Cystine crystal
(D) Calcium carbonate

9. Ion - Exchange resins are used to prepare :
(A) Demineralised water
(B) Distilled water
(C) Buffered water
(D) None of the abvoe

10. Which test detects ketone bodies in urine?
(A) Schlesinger's test
(B) Hays test
(C) Toluene Sulfonic acid test
(D) Legal’s test

11. Find out the incorrect statement regarding electrical hazard :
(A) The electrical equipment must be properly grounded
(B) Lab personnel should know the location of fuse box/circuit breakers
(C) In case of electric fire, use water to extinguish the fire
(D) Do not attach a two-or three-way outlet to a single outlet

12. Name the urine preservative which causes precipitation of crystals when used in large amounts :
(A) Boric acid
(B) Thymol
(C) Formalin
(D) Toluene

13. Which is an example for kinetic assay?
(A) Total protein - Biuret method
(B) Serum albumin – BCG method
(C) Estimation of SGPT
(D) Urea – Berthelot method

14. Curschmann’s spirals are seen in :
(A) Ascitic fluid
(B) Sputum
(C) Stool
(D) Urine

15. Icto test is a tablet test to detect __________ in urine.
(A) Bilirubin
(B) Bile salt
(C) Urobilinogen
(D) Ketone body

16. Pick out the wrong statement :
(A) Semen has a grey opalescent appearance
(B) Semen sample should be collected after a minimum of 3-5 days of sexual abstinence.
(C) If condom is used to collect the sample it must be washed well and dried
(D) Liquefaction time of semen is 90 minutes

17. The preferred sample for testing hcG in urine is :
(A) Morning sample
(B) 24-hour sample
(C) Random sample
(D) Afternoon sample

18. Find out the incorrect statement regarding 24-hour urine sample :
(A) A suitable preservative should be added to the collection container
(B) Collect the first morning urine sample in the container and note the time
(C) Collect all urine passed during the rest of the day and night in the container
(D) Morning urine sample of the next day is also collected in the container

19. Black tarry stool is seen in :
(A) Obstructive jaundice
(B) Excessive fat intake
(C) Barium meal x-ray
(D) Bleeding from upper GIT

20. Which enzyme is measured in semen to evaluate the secretory function of prostate?
(A) Acrosin
(B) Acid phosphatase
(C) Hyaluronidase
(D) Beta galactosidase

21. Which statement is true in the case of post hepatic jaundice?
(A) Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubins are increased
(B) Only unconjugated bilirubin is increased
(C) Only conjugated bilirubin is increased
(D) Alkaline phosphatase is increased

22. The enzyme involved in Liver Function Test :
(A) Enolase
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Alkaline phosphatase
(D) Uricase

23. Normal range of SGOT in blood is :
(A) 10 – 50 IU/L
(B) 5 – 30 IU/L
(C) 5 – 45 IU/L
(D) 15 – 65 IU/L

24. Malloy – Evelyn method is used for detecting :
(A) Bilirubin
(D) Cholesterol

25. Which among the following lipoprotein has the lowest density?
(B) Chylomicrons

26. Which among the following is not a cardiac marker?
(A) Troponin I

27. Blood calcium level is increased in :
(A) Rickets
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) Bone tumor
(D) Renal failure

28. The micromineral among the following is :
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sodium
(D) Zinc

29. Which of the following is used to detect prostatic carcinoma?
(A) Acid phosphatase
(B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) Alanine aminotransferase
(D) Aspartate aminotransferase

30. The quality in a clinical laboratory is not influenced by :
(A) Staff competency
(B) Equipment calibration
(C) Chemical storage
(D) None of the above

31. IV solutions can be sterilized by :
(A) Autoclave
(B) Membrane filter
(C) Hot air oven
(D) Chemical sterilization

32. Select incorrect statement from the following :
(A) Depyrogenation is done by Hot air oven
(B) Pasteurization kills pathogens in the milk
(C) Inoculating wire is sterilized by red heat method
(D) Antibiotic solutions are sterilized by Autoclave

33. Which is not a moist heat sterilization method?
(A) Hot air oven
(B) Autoclave
(C) Tyndallization
(D) Inspissation

34. Who is the father of Modern Bacteriology?
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Alexander Fleming
(D) Leeuwenhoek

35. In a bacterial cell, infoldings of plasma membrane is called :
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Ribosome
(C) Mesosome
(D) Mitochondria

36. Which of the following is a spirochaete?
(A) Leptospira
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Spirillum minus
(D) Streptococcus

37. Increase in HbA1c level indicates :
(A) Decreased risk of diabetes
(B) Diabetes under control
(C) Diabetes not under control
(D) Not related with diabetes

38. The most routine and specific test employed for blood glucose estimation:
(A) Benedict’s test
(B) GOD - POD method
(C) Folin Wu Method
(D) Ortho toluidine method

39. Which is not a Renal function test?
(A) C-peptide
(B) Uric acid
(C) Cystatin C
(D) Creatinine

40. Which is the end product of Purine metabolism?
(A) Urea
(B) Creatinine
(C) Uric acid
(D) Micro albumin

41. Light emission reaction is employed in which assay :

42. A solid medium which contains inhibiting substances that suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria and enables the growth of required bacteria to form colonies is called as a :
(A) Enrichment media
(B) Selective media
(C) Enriched media
(D) Differential media

43. The transport media used for Gonococci is :
(A) Hiss Serum Sugar media
(B) Tetrathionate broth
(C) Selenite F broth
(D) Stuart's medium

44. In bacterial growth curve, the phase in which the cell division comes to half due to depletion of nutrients and accumulation of toxic substances is :
(A) Log phase
(B) Phase of decline
(C) Lag phase
(D) Stationary phase

45. The routine laboratory test which is done to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococci is :
(A) Catalase test
(B) Coagulase test
(C) Oxidase test
(D) Urease test

46. Kovac’s reagent used in Indole test contains the following ingredients :
(i) Paradimethyl amino benzaldehyde
(ii) Con. HCL
(iii) Amyl alcohol
(iv) Methyl red
(A) only (i) and (ii)
(B) only (i) and (iii)
(C) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) only (i), (iii) and (iv)

47. A competitive binding assay in which fixed amounts of antibody and radiolabelled antigen react in the presence of unlabelled antigen is :
(C) Complement fixation test
(D) Immunofluorescence test

48. VDRL test for Syphillis is an example of :
(A) Slide flocculation test
(B) Tube flocculation test
(C) Ring test
(D) Immunodiffusion technique

49. The only maternal immunoglobulin that is normally transported across the placenta and provides natural immunity to newborn is :
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgG
(D) IgD

50. The bacterial colonies which shows ‘Medusa head’ appearance on agar plates and ‘Inverted fir tree’ appearance in gelatin stab culture :
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(B) Bacillus anthracis
(C) Pneumococci
(D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

51. The staining method used to demonstrate metachromatic granules in bacteria :
(i) Albert’s staining
(ii) Ponder’s staining
(iii) Neisser’s staining
(iv) Fontana’s staining
(A) only (i)
(B) only (i) and (ii)
(C) only (iv)
(D) only (i), (ii) and (iii)

52. A semi solid media used to test the ability of bacteria to ferment mannitol and to identify whether the bacteria is motile or non-motile is :
(A) Loefflers’s serum slope
(B) Casteneda’s medium
(C) Mannitol motility medium
(D) Robertson’s cooked meat medium

53. The causative agent of Weil’s disease :
(A) Treponema
(B) Borrelia
(C) Leptospira
(D) Mycoplasma

54. The inclusion bodies detected in the impression smears of brain of infected animal in Rabies Infection is :
(A) Eosinophillic granules
(B) Negri bodies
(C) Guarnieri bodies
(D) Metachromatic granules

55. An oval shaped, colourless egg containing a segmented ovum with blastomeres surrounded by a transparent shell membrane are the characteristic features of the egg of :
(A) Ascaris lumbricoides
(B) Ancylostoma duodenale
(C) Trichuris trichiura
(D) Taenia saginata

56. A cellphane swab used to collect the eggs of Enterobius vermicularis from the perianal skin is :
(A) Saline swab
(B) Cotton swab
(C) NIH swab
(D) Sterile swab

57. The different forms of Plasmodium vivax detected in the peripheral blood of human being is :
(i) Trophozoites
(ii) Schizonts
(iii) Gametocytes
(iv) Ring form
(A) only (i) and (ii)
(B) only (i) and (iv)
(C) only (i) and (iii)
(D) only (i), (ii) and (iii)

58. The quick method of staining of malarial parasite in thick films without fixation is :
(A) Leishman’s stain
(B) Field’s stain
(C) JSB stain
(D) Giemsa stain

59. The appearance of nocturnally periodic Microfilariae in peripheral blood in the day time can be induced by :
(A) Hetrazan Provocative test
(B) Concentration method
(C) Intradermal test
(D) Oral test

60. The following statements are true regarding the features of the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica :
(i) Quadrinucleated
(ii) Thermal death point is 50ºC
(iii) Glycogen mass stains brown with Iodine
(iv) Chromatoid bodies are seen as refractile in saline preparations
(A) only (i) and (ii)
(B) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

61. The process which involves the grinding of metal from the knife edge using abrasive substances to remove all nicks from the knife making it sharp and straight is called :
(A) Sharpening
(B) Polishing
(C) Honing
(D) Stropping

62. The process of polishing an already fairly sharp edge of the microtome knife is called :
(A) Honing
(B) Sharpening
(C) Polishing
(D) Stropping

63. In Rotary Microtome, which of the following is correct?
(A) Knife is moving and tissue block is fixed
(B) Knife is fixed and tissue block is moving
(C) Used for cutting frozen sections
(D) Biconcave knife is used in it

64. In person having XY chromosome, the number of barrbody is :
(A) One
(B) Greater than one
(C) Zero
(D) None of these

65. In papanicolaou stain the counter stain used is :
(A) Haemataxylin
(B) Methylene blue
(C) Eosin
(D) OG-6

66. ___________ connects muscles to the bone.
(A) Cartilage
(B) Tendons
(C) Ligaments
(D) Tissues of fat

67. Sutures are :
(A) Synarthrosis joints
(B) Amphiarthrosis joints
(C) Diaarthrosis joints
(D) None of these

68. Cavities of brain are called :
(A) Mediastinum
(B) Vasa recta
(C) Sinus
(D) Ventricles

69. Breathing rate in humans are controlled by :
(A) Thalamus
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Medulla Oblongata
(D) Lungs

70. Kupffer cells are present in :
(A) Liver
(B) Brain
(C) Pancreas
(D) Lungs

71. Class A glasswares used in a Laboratory are made of :
(A) Teflon glass
(B) Soda Lime glass
(C) Borosilicate glass
(D) None of these

72. Flame photometer is used for the detection of :
(A) Drugs
(B) Alkali metals
(C) Functional groups
(D) Chemical structure

73. Class A type fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving ____________ as fuel source.
(A) Combustible metals
(B) Electrical Equipments
(C) Flamable liquids
(D) Ordinary combustible materials

74. Fluid part of coagulated blood is called :
(A) Serum
(B) Plasma
(C) Formed Elements
(D) None of these

75. The mechanism of action of anticoagulant in light grey coloured vaccutainer tube is :
(A) Inhibit glycolysis
(B) Chelates calcium ions
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Prevent microbial growth

76. Prolonged application of tourniquet causes elevation of :
(A) Potassium
(B) Protein
(C) Glucose
(D) All the above

77. Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies is :
(B) Trisodium citrate
(C) Heparin
(D) Double oxalate

78. Which blood cell produces antibodies?
(A) Neutrophils
(B) T lymphocytes
(C) B lymphocytes
(D) Basophils

79. The area of a square of RBC counting area of an Improved Neubauer counting chamber is :
((A) 1/200 mm2
(B) 1/100 mm2
(C) 1/400 mm2
(D) 1 mm2

80. The granules of this blood cell contain heparin and histamine :
(A) Basophil
(B) Eosinophil
(C) Neutrophil
(D) Lymphocyte

81. Haematocrit value and RBC count are needed to calculate :
(D) None of these

82. Microcytes and macrocytes in the same blood smear is called
(A) Anisocytosis
(B) Poikilocytosis
(C) Erythrocytosis
(D) Spherocytosis

83. Erythrocytopaenia can be seen in all of the following conditions except :
(A) anaemia
(B) bone marrow failure
(C) leukaemia
(D) dehydration

84. Which among the following is a platelet diluting fluid?
(A) Dunger’s fluid
(B) 1% ammonium oxalate
(C) Hayem’s fluid
(D) Tuerk’s fluid

85. Stain used for reticulocyte count is :
(A) Wright strain
(B) Leishman’s stain
(C) Brillian Cresyl Blue
(D) MGG Stain

86. pH of Drabkin’s solution is:
(A) 4.5 – 6
(B) 7.0 – 7.4
(C) 8 – 9.4
(D) 9 – 10.5

87. Following are all Romanowsky’s stain except :
(A) Giemsa stain
(B) Leishman’s stain
(C) Jenner’s stain
(D) Perl’s stain

88. Which is the internationally recommended method for haemoglobin estimation?
(A) Acid haematin method
(B) Oxy haemoglobin method
(C) Alkali haematin method
(D) Cyan meth haemoglobin method

89. ESR is elevated in following diseases except :
(A) osteo arthritis
(B) rheumatic fever
(C) rheumatoid arthritis
(D) pyogenic infection

90. Which tube is used for the determination of macro hematocrit?
(A) Westergren’s tube
(B) Wintrobe’s tube
(C) Sahli’s tube
(D) Capillary tube

91. INR (International normalized ratio) is a calculation based on the result of
(A) Prothrombin time
(B) Bleeding time
(C) Clotting time
(D) Activated partial thromboplastin time

92. Anti haemophilic factor is :
(A) coagulation factor V
(B) coagulation factor III
(C) coagulation factor VIII
(D) coagulation factor IX

93. Anticoagulant of choice for Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is :
(A) heparin
(C) potassium oxalate
(D) 3.8% trisodium citrate

94. A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of the person is :
(A) A
(B) B
(C) AB
(D) O

95. Bombay blood group individuals may have the following antibodies except :
(A) Anti. a
(B) Anti. b
(C) Anti. h
(D) Anti. o

96. Colouring agent of Anti B anti serum is :
(A) Methylene blue
(B) Acriflavin
(C) Pink
(D) No colouring agent

97. ‘A’ blood group of father and ‘B’ blood group of mother could have children with blood group :
(A) A, O
(B) A, B, O
(C) A, AB, B, O
(D) A, AB

98. For patients having thrombocytopenia which blood component is transfused?
(A) Platelet rich plasma
(B) Whole blood
(C) Washed red cells
(D) Cryoprecipitate

99. Which is not a phase of cross matching?
(A) Saline phase
(B) Globulin phase
(C) Albumin phase
(D) Anti globulin phase

100. In blood bank which colour coded label is used to identify B blood group blood bag?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Blue
(D) White

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