Dairy Farm Instructor Questions and Answers

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Code: 242/2023
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Dairy Farm Instructor
Department: Kerala Dairy Development
Cat. Number: 691/2022, 419/2022
Date of Test : 16.12.2023


 1. What are the four fundamental forces of nature from strongest to weakest ?
 A) Weak nuclear force, Gravity, Electromagnetic force, Strong nuclear force
 B) Strong nuclear force, Electromagnetic force, Weak nuclear force, Gravity
 C) Weak nuclear force, Electromagnetic force, Gravity, Strong nuclear force
 D) Electromagnetic force, Gravity, Strong nuclear force, Weak nuclear force

2. Identify the dimensionless quantity from the following.
 A) Force
 B) Relative density
 C) Stress
 D) Work

3. A particle moves along a circular path of radius, r. What is the distance and displacement of the particle after one complete revolution ?
A) 2πr, 0

B) 0, 2πr
C) πr, 0
d) 0, πr

4. Which among the following is a scalar quantity ?
A) displacement
B) Acceleration
C) Pressure
d) None of the above

5. Which law is also known as law of inertia ?
 A) Newton’s I law
 B) Newton’s II law
 C) Kepler’s I law
 d) None of the above

6. A moving body has kinetic energy 50 J. The work done to stop the body is given by
A) 25 J
B) 20 J
C) 50 J
d) 100 J

7. Hooke’s law is
 A) Stress  ∝ Strain³
 B) Stress  ∝ √Strain
 C) Stress  ∝ Strain
 d) Strain  ∝ 1/Stress

8. Action of detergents
 A) decreases the surface tension of water
 B) Increases the viscosity of water
 C) Increases the surface tension of water
 d) None of the above

9. Sea breeze is based on
 A) Radiation
 B) Convection
 C) Conduction
 d) None of these

10. The relation connecting frequency (f) and time period (T) of a periodic motion is
 A) f = 2πT
 B) f = T/2π
 C) f T = 2p
 d) f  = 1/T

11. Quantization of charge is
 A) Q = ± ne
 B) Q = n2e
 C) Q =  n/e
 d) None of the above

12. Unit of electric potential is
 A) Joule/Coulomb
 B) Newton/Coulomb
 C) Volt /metre
 d) None of the above

13. Which among the following materials that obey Ohm’s law ?
 A) diodes
 B) Conductors
 C) Vacuum tubes
 d) Thermistors
 
14. A ferromagnetic substance above curie temperature
 A) Becomes diamagnetic
 B) Becomes paramagnetic
 C) Remains ferromagnetic
 d) None of the above

15. The principle behind transformer is
 A) Self induction
 B) mutual induction
 C) Electromagnetic induction
 d) None of the above

16. Tuning of radio is based on
 A) Electromagnetic induction
 B) Self induction
 C) Resonance
 d) None of the above

17. Optical fibres works on the principle of
 A) Reflection
 B) Diffraction
 C) Scattering
 d) Total internal reflection

18. In photoelectric effect, the number of photo electrons emitted per second depend on
 A) Intensity of incident light
 B) Frequency of incident light
 C) Wavelength of incident light
 d) None of the above

19. The source of energy of the sun is
 A) Compton effect
 B) Nuclear fission
 C) Nuclear fusion
 d) Photoelectric effect
 
20. The process of conversion of alternating current into direct current is known as
A) Oscillation
B) Amplification
C) Rectification
D) Modulation

21. Which experiment is responsible for finding out the charge of an electron ?
 A) Cathode ray discharge tube
 B) millikan’s oil drop method
 C) Rutherford a-ray scattering experiment
 d) None of these

22. Acetylene molecule has carbon in
 A) sp hybridisation
 B)sp2 hybridisation
 C) sp3d hybridisation
 d) sp3 hybridisation

23. Enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are
 A) Unity
 B) Zero
 C) < 0
 d) different for each element

24. Identify the lewis acid among the following.
 A) OH–
 B) H₂O 
 C) BF3
 d) NH3

25. Which of the following is a buffer ?
 A) HCl + NaCl
 B) NaOH + NaCl
 C) HCl + KCl
 d) NH4OH + NH4Cl

26. In the lassaigne’s test for Nitrogen in an organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained due to the formation of




27. Purification method used for separating Glycerol from Spent-lye in soap industry is
 A) Sublimation
 B) Crystallisation
 C) distillation under reduced pressure
 d) Chromatography

28. Number of moles of the solute per kilogram of the solvent is
 A) mole fraction
 B) molality
 C) molarity
 d) mass %

29. Which of the following is an example for an ideal solution ?
 A) Ethanol + acetone
 B) Phenol + aniline
 C) Acetone + chloroform
 d) Benzene + toluene

30. The conversion of molecules-A to B follows second order kinetics. If the concentration of A is increased to two times how will it affect the rate of formation of B ?
 A) Rate will increase two times
 B) Rate will increase four times
 C) Rate remains constant
 d) Rate will increase six times

31. Choose the correct expression for Arrhenius equation.
 


32. The Carbon-Oxygen bond length in phenol is
 A) 142 pm
 B) 141 pm
 C) 136 pm
 d) 130 pm
 
33. during fermentation which gas is released ?
 A) O₂
 B) SO₂
 C) CO₂
 d) NO₂

34. Identify allylic alcohol from the following.



 35. Fill in the reagents for the given conversions :



 36. Carboxylic acid can be prepared from Grignard reagent by the reaction with
 A) Ammonia
 B) Water
 C) Chromic acid
 d) Carbon dioxide

 37. General formula of Carboxydrate is


 38. In fibrous protein polypeptide chains are held together by
 A) Van der Waal’s force
 B) Electrostatic force of attraction
 C) Hydrogen and disulphide bonds
 d) None of these

 39. Enzyme which can catalyze hydrolysis of maltose to glucose is
 A) Zymase
 B) maltase
 C) Invertase
 d) diastase

 40. Which choice contains all the three molecular units found in nucleotides ?
 A) Amino acid, sugar, nitrogen containing base
 B) Phosphate, sugar, amino acid
 C) Phosphate, nitrogen containing base, sugar
 d) Nitrogen containing base, peptide linkage, sugar

 41. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from
 A) Anther to stigma of the same flower
 B) Anther to stigma of the different plant of two species
 C) Anther to stigma between different plants of same species
 d) Anther to stigma between two flowers of the same plant

42. From the list of fruits below select true fruit.
 A) Apple
 B) Cashew
 C) mango
 d) Strawberry

43. Choose the selectable marker gene of cloning vector pBR 322.
 A) Bam lfl
 B) ampR
 C) Clal
 D) Pvul

44. Rosie is a transgenic animal. It belongs to
 A) monkey
 B) Pig
 C) Cow
 d) Rat

45. The population interaction between Barnacles and Whale is
 A) Commensalism
 B) Amensalism
 C) mutualism
 d) Parasitism

46. From the following list of pteridophytes choose a heterosporous pteridophyte.
 A) Psilotum
 B) Selaginella
 C) Equisetum
 d) Pteris

47. Parietal placentation is found in
 A) dianthus
 B) Primrose
 C) Argemone
 d) marigold

48. Name the stage at which synapsis of homologous chromosomes appears during prophase I of meiosis.
 A) Zygotene
 B) leptotene
 C) diplotene
 d) diakinesis

49. Name the first stable product of Carbon dioxide fixation in C4 plants.
 A) Phosphoenolpyruvate
 B) Oxaloacetic Acid
 C) Phosphoglyceric Acid
 d) Phosphoglucolate

50. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is


51. Which statement is not correct about Osteoporosis ?
 A) It is an age related disorder
 B) Increased levels of estrogen is a common cause of it
 C) In this chance of fractures increased
 d) In this bone mass is decreased

52. Enzymes which catalyse transfer of a group other than hydrogen, belong to the class
 A) dehydrogenase
 B) lyase
 C) Isomerase
 d) Transferase

53. Which of the following are sensory organs in Phylum Arthropoda ?
 1. Simple or compound eye.
 2. Statocyst or balancing organ.
 3. malpighian tubules.
 4. Antennae.
 A) All except 4
 B) All except 1
 C) All except 2
 d) All except 3

54. Which of the following is not a goal of Human Genome Project ?
 A) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human dNA
 B) Store this information in databases
 C) Restrict the related technologies, so that the other sectors do not benefitted with it
 d) Address the ethical, legal and social issues

55. Sacred groves are one of the important means of biodiversity conservation. In respect of this, find out the odd one.
 A) Aravalli Hills – Rajasthan
 B) Khasi and Jaintia Hills – meghalaya
 C) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar – Tamil Nadu
 d) Western Ghat – Karnataka and maharashtra

56. match the following :
 1. Pectinases         i. Blood cholesterol lowering agents
 2. Streptokinases  ii. Immuno suppressive agents
 3. Cyclosporin A  iii. Clot busters
 4. Statin                iv. Clarifying agents
       1    2    3   4
 A) iv   iii   ii   i
 B) iv   iii   i    ii
 C) iii   iv   ii   i
 d) i      ii   iii   iv

57. Find the incorrect matching.
 A) Hypertension – High blood pressure
 B) CAd – Athero sclerosis
 C) Heart failure – Heart attack
 d) Stroke volume – Beat volume

58. The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography is called
 A) Convergent evolution
 B) Adaptive radiation
 C) Parallel evolution
 d) Continental drift

59. match the source gland with its respective hormone and function and select correct option.
         Gland                        Hormone                            Function
 A) Pineal gland              melatonin                Regulation of 24 hours (diurnal) rhythm in man
 B) Posterior pituitary     Oxytocin                Stimulate the reabsorption of water in the distal
                                                                               tubules (in the nephron) of kidney of man.
 C) Corpus luteum          Testosterone          Formation of spermatozoa in man
 d) Thymus gland            Thyroxin                 Regulate the blood calcium level of human beings

60. Assertion : Sex of human body is determined by father, not by mother.
      Reason : Xy chromosome is present in human male.
Read the above assertion and reason carefully to select the correct option out of the options given below
 A) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
 B) If both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
 C) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false
 d) If both the assertion and reason are false

61. let A and B are two sets such that n(A) = 3, n(B) = 4, then n(A×B) equals
 A) 7
 B) 12
 C) 27
 d) 16

62. What is the derivative of log3 ?
 A) 3
 B) 1/3
 C) √3
 d) 0


 

 A) 2
 B) √2
 C) 0
 d) None of these

64. In the expansion of (a+b)2n, which is the middle term ?




65. How many chords can be drawn through 8 points on a circle ?
 A) 20
 B) 28
 C) 56
 d) 16

66. 3! – 2! equals
 A) 1
 B) 2
 C) 3
 d) 4

67. Find the number of permutations using all the letters of the word AllAHABAd.
 A) 7650
 B) 7560
 C) 6570
 d) 6750

68. Three coins are tossed once. What is the probability of getting atmost 2 heads ?
 A) 7/8
 B) 3/8
 C) 1/8
 d) 1/2

69. 69. How many terms of a geometric progression 1, 2, 22, ... are needed to give the sum 63 ?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 6
d) 3

70. The interval in which the function f given by f(x) = x2 – 4x + 6 is strictly increasing is
 A)  (– ∞, 2)
 B) [2, ∞)
 C) (– ∞ , 2]
 d)  (2, ∞)

71. Which of the following relations on A = {1, 2, 3} is an equivalence relation ?
 A) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)}
 B) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2)}
 C) {(1, 1), (3, 3), (1, 3), (3, 1)}
 d) {(2, 2), (1, 2), (2, 1)}

72. The function given f : N ? N by f(x) = 2x is
 A) One-one and onto
 B) One-one but not onto
 C) Not one-one and not onto
 d) Onto but not one-one



74. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x³ – x at x = 2 is
 A) 6
 B) 11
 C) 12
 d) 10





76. The number of all possible 2×2 matrices with entries 0 or 1 is
 A) 16
 B) 9
 C) 8
 d) 25







78. If A and B are square matrices of the same order, then (A+B) (A – B) equal to




79. If A is a 3×3 matrix with |A| = 5, then |adj A| is
 A) 1/5
 B) 1/25
 C) 5
 d) 25








81. Which of the following statement is correct regarding zebu cattle ?
 1. They are well adapted to tropical climate.
 2. They have low nutritional requirements.
 3. They have low disease resistance.
 4. They have high potential for milk production.
 A) 1 only
 B) 1 and 2 only
 C) 1, 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. The first phase of operation flood was financed by the sale of skim milk powder and butter oil gifted by
 A) United Nations
 B) World Bank
 C) European Economic Community
 d) USA

83. Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Operation Flood (OF) program ?
 1. OF phase 1 started in 1962.
 2. OF phase 2 started in 1979.
 3. OF phase 2 concluded in 1981.
 A) 1 only
 B) 2 only
 C) 1 and 2 only
 d) All of the above

84. Which of the following are the objectives of “National Project for Cattle and Buffalo Breeding” (NPCBB) ?
 1. Arrange delivery of vastly improved artificial insemination service at the farmers door-step.
 2. Bring all breedable females among cattle and buffalo under organized breeding through artificial insemination or natural service.
 3. Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle and buffaloes.
 A) 1 only
 B) 2 only
 C) 1 and 2 only
 d) All of the above

85. It is recommended to withdraw milk feeding of calves at ________ of age.
 A) 1.5 – 2 months
 B) 2.5 – 3 months
 C) 3.5 – 4 months
 d) 4.5 – 5 months

86. Which of the following is/are not true about dairy cattle housing ?
 1. The floor may be given a slope of 1 in 85 depending upon the type of flooring.
 2. The length and width of standing space is kept variable from 1.5 to 1.7 m and 1 to 1.2 m per animal respectively.
 3. All edges in rectangular fixtures have to be rounded and finished smooth as far as possible.
 A) 1 only
 B) 2 only
 C) 1 and 2 only
 d) All of the above

87. __________ grass is formed by a cross between elephant grass and bajra.
 A) Guinea
 B) Signal
 C) Hybrid Napier
 d) multicut bajra

88. Which of the following is not a sanitizing agent used in dairying ?
 A) Boiling water
 B) Chlorine
 C) Quaternary ammonium compounds
 d) detergents

89. lTlT pasteurization is done at
 A) 72°C for 15 sec
 B) 63°C for 15 sec
 C) 72°C for 30 min
 d) 63°C for 30 min

90. The pricing of milk in dairy cooperatives in India is based on
 A) Quantity/weight of milk only
 B) Fat content only
 C) Fat and SNF content
 d) Fat, SNF and microbial count

91. The minimum fat and SNF content of toned milk as per FSSA standard is
 A) 3 and 8.5
 B) 1.5 and 9
 C) 3 and 9
 d) 3.2 and 8.5

92. Which of the following platform test help in finding the heat stability of milk ?
 A) mBRT test
 B) lactometer reading
 C) Clot on boiling test
 d) Standard plate count

93. minimum per cent milk fat in ice cream as per FSSA standard is
 A) 15 per cent
 B) 10 per cent
 C) 12 per cent
 d) 8 per cent

94. Which of the following microorganisms is not responsible for the fermentation of milk into curd/dahi ?
 A) lactobacillus casei
 B) lactobacillus bulgaricus
 C) Streptococcus thermophilus
 d) Escherichia coli

95. Which dairy product results from the coagulation of milk proteins by acidification/ enzyme action ?
 A) Cheese
 B) Butter
 C) Whey protein
 d) milk powder

96. What is the primary function of a hydrometer in dairy quality control ?
 A) measuring pH
 B) determining microbial load
 C) Assessing milk solids-not-fat (SNF) content
 d) Testing for antibiotics

97. What is the reason for conducting a sensory evaluation of dairy products ?
 A) To determine the microbial count
 B) To assess consumer preferences and product attributes
 C) To measure the product shelf life
 d) To calculate the viscosity of the product

98. When conducting quality control for dairy product packaging, what is the primary objective of evaluating seals and closures on containers ?
 A) To check for proper labeling
 B) To ensure that the milk is properly pasteurized
 C) To confirm the product’s pH
 d) To maintain product freshness and prevent contamination

99. Which of the following milk products does not contain sucrose ?
 A) Sweetened condensed milk
 B) dairy whitener
 C) Skim milk powder
 d) Srikhand

100. Which of the following fat rich dairy products does not contain protein ?
 A) Ghee
 B) Cream
 C) Butter
 d) malai












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