Receptionist - Question and Answer Key

Name of Post: Receptionist    

Department: Medical Education Services

Cat. Number: 003/2019

Date of Test: 27.01.2022

Question Code: 006/22

1. Direct social work practice is related to all the following except
A) Case work
B) Case Management
C) Individual Psychotherapy
D) Policy Practice

2. Competent practise in generalist practice in Social Work includes
a. Screening of methods, theories and their evidence for cultural relevance.
b. Selective use of one or more methods and theories in the same case.
A) Both a and b are correct, b is the explanation of a
B) Both a and b are correct, b is a subsequent step of a
C) Both a and b are necessary but not related
D) Both a and b are not true for generalist practice

3. Evidence-based Practice in Social Work
a. It requires an appraisal of the levels of evidence according to the rigour of the research designs.
b. It relies on statistical evidence to determine what works and which intervention is better than another.
A) Both a and b are criteria for evidence based practice
B) Only a is a criterion for evidence based practice
C) Only b is a criterion for evidence based practice
D) Both are not criteria for evidence based practice

4. Strength-based practice
a. Focus on resiliency over vulnerability.
b. Goals not deficits drive treatment.
c. Assessment is bypassed in favour of a goal-directed treatment plan.
A) All statements are true
B) a and b are true
C) a and c are true
D) b and c are true

5. Client’s right to be appraised of the effectiveness of proposed treatment options is referred to
A) Privileged Communication
B) Informed consent
C) Self determination
D) None of these

6. Which of the following is not an example of indirect practice ?
A) Administration and supervision of agency programmes
B) Face to face delivery of concrete services
C) Social Policy analysis
D) Advocacy

7. Group work as a method of social work was established by
A) Giesela Konopka
B) Mary Richmond
C) Grace Koyle
D) Charlottee Towle

8. The implicit and explicit group communications and interactive patterns are captured using a
A) Ecogram
B) Ecomap
C) Genogram
D) Sociogram

9. The core principles of Social Case Work by Biestek does not include
A) Confidentiality
B) Privileged Communication
C) Self Determination
D) Controlled emotional involvement

10. Consider the statements in relation to Group Work.
a. The worker is expected to form purposeful relationship to group members and the group.
b. ‘Conscious use of self’ is vital in group work process.
A) Both a and b are correct, b is the prerequisite of a
B) Both a and b are correct, b is a subsequent step of a
C) Both a and b are necessary but not related
D) Both a and b are not true for group work practice

11. All the following are true about The Constitution of India except
A) Adopted by the Parliament on 26 November, 1949 and became effective on 26 January, 1950.
B) It replaced the Govt. of India Act of 1935
C) It imparts constitutional supremacy and rules out parliamentary supremacy and parliament cannot override the same
D) The document lays down the framework that demarcates the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers and duties of  government institutions

12. When we distinguish law and morality
a. The object of law is the submission of the individual to the will of organised society while the tendency of morality is to subject the individual to the dictates of his/her own consciences.
b. Morality furnishes the criterion for the proper evaluation of our interests; law marks out the limits within which they ought to be confined.
A) Only a is true
B) Only b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are wrong

13. All the fundamental Rights are guaranteed to every citizen of the country is made possible through the
A) Right Against Exploitation
B) Right to Freedom
C) Right to Equality
D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

14. Consider the following statements with regard to Right to Health in India.
a. Article 21 derives from the directive principles of state policy and includes protection of health.
b. The fifteenth Finance Commission recommended that India must have a Fundamental Right to health and the Right to Health must be declared a Fundamental Right on the 75th Independence Day in 2022.
A) Only a is true
B) Only b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are wrong

15. The following statements are true with regard to The Mental Health Care Act, 2017 except
A) It repealed the Mental Health Act, 1987.
B) Prohibits any kind of physical restraint for the mentally ill person for preventing harm to others.
C) Prohibits electro-convulsive therapy without the use of muscle relaxants and anaesthesia.
D) Presumption of severe stress in the in case of attempt to commit suicide and deny trial under the IPC Section 309.

16. Supreme Court in Indian is established based on the
A) Article 176
B) Article 152
C) Article 134
D) Article 124

17. Which of the following is not correct about the right to private defence ?
A) Section 96 of IPC
B) Based on the natural instinct of self-preservation
C) Subject to restriction contained in Section 99 of IPC
D) All are correct

18. First information report can be lodged by Officer in charge of Police Station at the information of_______
A) Any person
B) Police personnel
C) ALawyer
D) None of the above

19. Section 50 of the CrPc is related to
A) Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail
B) Right to touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested
C) No women shall be arrested after sunset and without the presence of female police personnel
D) None of these

20. Provision of free legal aid include all the below except
A) Representation by an Advocate in legal proceedings
B) Drafting of legal documents, special leave petition etc.
C) Payment of process fees, expenses of witnesses and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any legal proceedings in appropriate cases
D) All are correct

21. A shirt worn by a person with chickenpox is likely to be contaminated with the virus that causes chickenpox. The shirt is a
A) Fomite
B) Host
C) Pathogen
D) Vector

22. The disease agent has not yet entered man, but the factors which favor it’s interaction with the human host are already existing in environment.
A) Prepathogenesis phase
B) Pathogenesis phase
C) Post pathogenesis
D) Prevention

23. _________ refers to the proportion of persons with clinical disease who become severely ill or die.
A) Infectivity
B) Pathogenicity
C) Virulence
D) None of these

24. Which of the following statements are true about Protein energy malnutrition is
a. Can occur even when food is readily available.
b. Occurs more frequently in children than in adults.
c. Includes both marasmus and kwashiorkor.
A) Only a is correct
B) Only b is correct
C) b and c are correct
D) All the statements are true

25. A substance, living or non-living, or a force, tangible or intangible the excessive presence or relative lack of which may initiate or perpetuate a disease process.
A) Agent
B) Host
C) Environment
D) Pathogen

26. Which of the following is a chronic mood disturbance that can cause depressive symptoms, but does not disrupt normal functioning ?
A) Cyclothymia
B) Recurrent Depressive Disorder
C) Dysthymia
D) Dissociative Disorder

27. In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as
A) Negative Symptoms
B) Positive Symptoms
C) Meditating Symptoms
D) None of these

28. Which of the following is not a symptom of Anorexia Nervosa ?
A) A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
B) A pathological fear of gaining weight
C) Adistorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight
D) All these are symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa

29. Which of the following are not correct with regard to primary health care in India ?
A) APHC covers a population of 30000
B) A sub center in hilly area caters to all population of 3000
C) Shrivastava Committee recommended for the Three-Tier System of Health care delivery in rural areas
D) All are correct

30. Which of the following is not a mandate of National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke (NPCDCS) ?
A) Provide early diagnosis and management of common NCDs
B) Establish and develop capacity for palliative and rehabilitative care
C) Prevent and control common NCDs through behaviour and life style changes
D) All are correct

31. The NASW occupational profile of social workers in health care involves all the following except
A) Initial screening and evaluation of patient and families
B) Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of patients
C) Helping patients and families understand the illness and treatment options, as well as consequences of various treatments or treatment refusal
D) Helping families in registration, admission, taking their documents towards, receiving them in the reception

32. Which health committee recommended appointment of medical social workers in hospitals in India ?
A) Shrivastava Committee
B) Mudaliar Committee
C) Bhore Committee
D) Karthar Singh Committee

33. The first hospital social worker in the UK known as the hospital almoners was appointed in the
A) Royal Free Hospital, London
B) Royal Edinburg Hospital, London
C) Lady Irwin Hospital, London
D) None of these

34. The primary functions envisaged by Richard Cabot while hiring Garnet Pelton as hospital social worker were
A) To critique while helping to socialize medicine
B) The act as a translator between physician and patient and family
C) To provide information on social and mental factors
D) All of these

35. A whole person care approach in health care involves all the following except
A) Physical and medical condition of the client
B) Emotional or psychological state
C) Socio-political status
D) All of these

36. Effective social work in health care involves
a. Coordinate fragmented services from multiple disciplines
b. Monitor and expedite service delivery
c. Locate and broker services
A) a,b and c are true
B) Only ais true
C) a and b are true
D) aand c are true

37. The desired outcomes of case management consist of all of the following except
A) Cure of a primary condition
B) Empowerment
C) Environmental accommodations
D) Skill training and acquisition

38. Token economy is based on
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Social learning
D) Humanistic therapy

39. Community based rehabilitation does not include
A) Access to healthcare
B) Skills training
C) Political empowerment
D) All are correct

40. Consider the following statements regarding Multidisciplinary team work in healthcare.
a. MDT helps in reducing the number of medical errors and increases the level of patient safety.
b. Diminish the work-culture issues that lead to professional burnout.
c. Improved patient-centred care for the long-term
A) Only a is true
B) a and b are true
C) a and c are true
D) a,b and c are true

41. The team competencies of a multidisciplinary team include
A) maximizing collective intelligence
B) inclusive collaboration
C) open communication
D) all of these

42. A client who is aware of the issue, but is not fully aware of the options, benefits for changing and consequences for not changing is in which stage of motivation cycle
A) Pre-contemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Action
D) Maintenance

43. A social worker actively involved screening of cancer and referral for care is involved in
A) Primary Prevention
B) Secondary Prevention
C) Tertiary Prevention
D) Rehabilitation

44. Triage is
A) Treating the mentally ill persons
B) ‘First come first served’
C) Treating the most serious first
D) Treating patients with better prognosis as priority

45. Patients are most likely to comply with the medical advice if
A) The illness has serious symptoms
B) The doctor is elderly
C) The illness is chronic
D) The medical team has taken time to provide informational care to the patient

46. Which of the following is the correct order for the four major steps in designing a health education lesson plan ?
I . Developing instructional objectives and evaluation measures that are congruent.
Il. Identifying several teaching strategies that encourage teacher modelling and student participation.
Ill. Setting scope and sequence boundaries for the topic.
IV. Determining the general focus for the lesson plan
B) II, I, III, IV  

47. The sick role assumed and adopted by persons often form part of the illness presentation and aggravate the following mental health condition
A) Psychosomatic disorders
B) Somatoform disorders
C) Panic Attacks
D) All of these

48. A reaction to loss, or anticipated loss is what term is assigned to the emotional response associated with loss ?
A) Sadness
B) Grief
C) Trauma
D) None of these

49. What term is applied to the loss of a loved one through death ?
A) Grief
B) Mourning
C) Bereavement
D) Trauma

50. What is the fourth stage of the Kiibler-Ross model of loss ?
A) Bargaining
B) Depression
C) Denial
D) Anger

51. Informed consent includes all the following except
A) Agreement
B) Voluntary
C) Debates
D) Understanding

52. Ayushman Bharat-National Health Protection Mission
A) Integrates Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS)
B) Integrates Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY) and Awaz Health Insurance Scheme
C) Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Insurance Scheme and Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)
D) Integrates all these schemes

53. Arogya Sanjeevani Insurance Policy is
A) announced under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package
B) guarantees free and cashless services up to Rs. 5 lakh in a year for secondary and tertiary care
C) launched to cover the hospitalisation expenses of the Covid-19 patients
D) none of these

54. Electronic Health Records (EHR)
A) Is acollection of various medical records that get generated during any clinical encounter or events
B) Promote interoperability and where necessary be specific about certain content exchange and vocabulary standards to establish a path forward toward semantic interoperability
C) Promote technical innovation using adopted standards
D) All of these

55. Occasions when two or more professions learn with, from and about each other to improve collaboration and the quality of care
A) Collaborative education
B) Interprofessional education
C) Collaborative learning
D) None of these

56. Which of these should be kept in mind while giving instructions ?
A) The pitch of the receiver
B) The tone of the receiver
C) His/her ability to grasp information
D) The physical condition of the receiver

57. Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the application of digital information and communication technology to health care ?
A) digi-health
B) e-health
C) i-health
D) tech-health

58. An example of communicable disease
A) cardiovascular diseases
B) cancer
C) chronic respiratory diseases
D) tuberculosis

59. Who proposed the biopsychosocial model ?
A) Freud
B) Sontag
C) Engel
D) None of these

60. According to the health belief model, the extent to which a person adheres to medication advice depends upon
A) perceived disease severity
B) susceptibility to the disease
C) benefits of the recommended treatment
D) all of these

61. The Latin word ‘infans’ meaning is
A) Unable to walk
B) Unable to speak
C) Baby reflex
D) None of these

62. Infant mortality rate means the number of deaths of children
A) Under the age of six months per 1000 live births
B) Under the age of one year per 100 live births
C) Under the age of one year per 1000 live births
D) Under the age of six months per 100 live births

63. Please select the correct order to periods of prenatal development
A) Germinal — Embryonic — Foetal
B) Embryonic — Foetal —Germinal
C) Germinal — Foetal — Embryonic
D) Embryonic — Germinal — Foetal

64. Which is not included in the developmental tasks of adolescents ?
A) Achieving emotional independence
B) Preparing for an economic career
C) Achieving mature relations with both sexes
D) Starting a family

65. WHO defines adolescents as persons in the age group of
A) 10 to 19
B) 13 to 18
C) 12 to 19
D) 10 to 18

66. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development identifies_________distinct stages of a child’s intellectual development.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

67. What is the main assertion of Havighurst’s developmental theory ?
A) Development is continuous by means of cognitive maturing
B) Development is continuous by means of internal and external physical growth
C) Development is continuous by means of successful resolution of problem performance tasks
D) Development is continuous by means of specific cultural build out to which the individual belongs

68. Which among the following is not a characteristic of old age ?
A) Deterioration of sense faculties
B) Loneliness
C) Withdrawal from social contacts and loss of interest in personal life and family responsibility
D) Optimistic attitudes

69. What development of children will be directly affected by the reduction of emotional and physical support by the family ?
A) Physical Development
B) Cultural Development
C) Personality Development
D) Career Development

70. The sequential order of play development in children is
A) Solitary play, co-operative play, parallel play
B) Solitary play, parallel play, co-operative play
C) Parallel play, solitary play, co-operative play
D) Co-operative play, parallel play, solitary play

71. The nutrient which needed for a healthy immune system and strong connective tissue
A) Fiber     
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Calcium

72. An example of a hydrogenated fat
A) Butter
B) Olive oil
C) Margarine
D) Soyabean oil

73. The large central portion of the kernel and contains most of the starch
A) Aleurone
B) Endosperm
C) Bran
D) Germ

74. Which pigment give red colour to fruits and vegetables ?
A) Chlorophyll
B) Flavin and Flavonoids
C) Anthocyanins
D) All of the above

75. A very restrictive diet that replaces normal foods with special formulas
A) Gluten free diet
B) Elemental diet
C) Low fat diet
D) Detox diet

76. Basal metabolism is calculated when
A) Mental activity is in progress
B) Person is physically and mentally at rest
C) Mental ability is in progress
D) None of the above

77. The generic name of polysaccharides is
A) Pentoses
B) Cellulose
C) Glycans
D) Glucans

78. Approximately how much protein does an average adult male require each day ?
A) 36.3 g/d
B) 50 g/d
C) 43.9 g/d
D) 54.0 g/d

79. Which among the following is not a nutritional problem of elders ?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Malnutrition
C) Anaemia
D) Eclampsia

80. Which of the nutrient deficiency leads to the condition spina bifida ?
A) Folate
B) Vitamin B6
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin E

81. Which of the following would help a small room feel larger ?
A) Use rough textures
B) Use large furniture, patterns and textures
C) Use cool light colours
D) Place lighting as one chandelier

82. Which of the following is not a tool of time management ?
A) Peak Load
B) Work Curve
C) Fatigue
D) Rest Period

83. Furniture should be designed according to the
A) Latest trends and design to make it look luxurious
B) Posture adopted by performing various activities or at rest
C) Specifications of clients even if it is uncomfortable
D) Budget decided by the client

84. The Japanese art of flower arrangement is known as
A) Origami
B) Kimono
C) Bonsai
D) Ikebana

85. Time is a fleeting, limited and _________ human resource.
A) Easy
B) Intangible
C) Transferable
D) Tangible

86. The concept of classes of change was stated by Dr. Marvin
A) Muillar
B) Markar
C) Mundel
D) Monto

87. The fullform of CFL is
A) Common Fluorescent Lamps
B) Common Filament Lamps
C) Compound Fluorescent Lamps
D) Compact Fluorescent Lamps

88. The line which suggests rest and relaxation, composure and steadiness and repose and peacefulness
A) Diagonal Line
B) Horizontal Line
C) Curved Line
D) Zig Zag Line

89. Operation chart is used to study
A) Body movement
B) Leg movement
C) Finger movement
D) Hand movement

90. Which among the following is psychological fatigue ?
A) Boredom
B) Lack of motivation
C) Lack of sleep
D) Physical exertion

91. Who introduced “noise” as an element in the model of communication process ?
A) Berlo
B) Schramm
C) Leagans
D) Shannon and Weaver

92. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order ?
A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

93. Collection of information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as
A) Feed forward
B) Feed-back
C) Research study
D) Opinion poll

94. What is the standard size of a Flash Card ?
A) 12 x 7cm
B) 15 x 13cm
C) 30 x 20cm
D) 50 x 22cm

95. Talks with a brief presentation followed by a question answer session from the audience
A) Computer assisted instruction
B) Seminar
C) Tech talk
D) Panel discussion

96. Stand alone booth placed at a location that has public access and which provideinformation about a particular topic ?
A) Information Kiosks
B) Internet Kiosks
C) Wayfinding Kiosks
D) Self-service Kiosks

97. The stage in which the learner involves his/her visual and tactile modes to synthesize learning ?
A) Field trip
B) Direct experiences
C) Demonstration
D) Exhibits

98. Cone of experience by Edger was dale based on cognitive psychology model.
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Jerome Bruner
C) Edward Thorndike
D) Piaget

99. Who designed the following model of communication ?
Sender ——
A) Schramm
B) Rogers and Shoemaker’s
C) Shannon and Weaver
D) Adler and Towne

100. Video conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication
A) Visual one way
B) Audio visual two way
C) Visual two way
D) Audio visual one way

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