Nurse Gr II - Question and Answer Key


Name of Post: Nurse Gr II 
Department: Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges 
Cat. Number: 486/2020
Date of Test: 21.11.2021
Question Code: 119/2021

1. Which of the following does not take place in a catabolic reaction? 
(A) Glycolysis 
(B) Citric acid cycle 
(C) Mineralisation of bone 
(D) Deamination 

2. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of : 
(A) Vertebral artery 
(B) Basilar artery 
(C) Internal carotid artery 
(D) External carotid artery 

3. Name the blood vessel supplying the walls of large arteries and veins : 
(A) Vasa vasoram 
(B) Tunica media 
(C) Serosa 
(D) Interluminar artery 

4. Which of the following is a carpel bone? 
(A) Malleus 
(B) Lunate 
(C) Talus 
(D) Calcaneum 

5. Which of the following is the measure of the heart performance based on the size of the individual? 
(A) Cardiac output 
(B) Ventricular end-diastolic volume 
(C) Stroke volume 
(D) Cardiac index 

6. Which is the most important factor that have marked influence on the composition of 
intestinal flora ? 
(A) Blood supply 
(B) Age 
(C) Lysozymes 
(D) Diet

7. What is the colour of gram-positive bacteria after staining? 
(A) Blue 
(B) Purple 
(C) Red 
(D) Pink

8. A persistent pathogen is : 
(A) One which remains viable for a long period inside the host 
(B) One which remains viable for a long period inside the Carrier 
(C) One which remains viable for a long period outside the host 
(D) One which remains viable for a long period outside the reservoir 

9. Who told the statement “sociology is the study of the relationship between man and his environment”? 
(A) Fair child H.P 
(B) Ginsberg 
(C) Cuber J.F 
(D) Gillin and Gillin 

10. LSD is a powerful : 
(A) Hypnotic 
(B) Sedative 
(C) Hallucinogen 
(D) Tranquillizer 

11. When collecting history from a client, he says that he is staying with his parents, grand parents, uncles, aunts and cousins . The nurse understands that he belongs to : 
(A) Nuclear family 
(B) Joint family 
(C) Extended family 
(D) Conjugal family 

12. The process by which the individual learns to conform to the norms of the group is called : 
(A) Socialization 
(B) Individualization 
(C) Assimilation 
(D) Acculturation 

13. Which among the following is not a type of controlled thinking? 
(A) Problem solving 
(B) Creative thinking 
(C) Reasoning 
(D) Imagination
14. An adolescent engages in rebellious behaviour and has difficulty in maintaining personal relationships. The nurse recognises that he/she might have failed to achieve the Erickson's psychosocial development task of : 
(A) Industry vs Inferiority 
(B) Intimacy vs Isolation 
(C) Identity vs Role Confusion 
(D) Initiative vs Guilt 

15. Parents remove strict control on the use of internet when a child demonstrate a responsible behaviour is an example of : 
(A) Negative reinforcement 
(B) Positive punishment 
(C) Positive reinforcement 
(D) Negative punishment 

16. In the postoperative ward, nurse observes a patient experiencing pain. She reaches the conclusion that all postoperative patients experience pain. Which type of reasoning is used? 
(A) Abductive 
(B) Deductive 
(C) Inductive 
(D) Dialectical 

17. Change in attitude of a person can occur through his desire to fit with a group. This type of social influence is called : 
(A) Dissonance 
(B) Persuasion 
(C) Communication 
(D) Conformity 

18. The ego defense mechanism in which a woman who has hatred toward mother in law behaves lovingly and friendly : 
(A) Regression 
(B) Reaction formation 
(C) Conversion 
(D) Repression 

19. According to topographical model of mind, the repressed desires and thoughts are in the : 
(A) Conscious 
(B) Preconscious 
(C) Unconscious 
(D) Subconscious 

20. Which among the following is a secondary motive? 
(A) Achievement 
(B) Activity 
(C) Curiosity 
(D) Manipulation 

21. An elderly client tells to the nurse that “Your behaviour remind me of my daughter”. Which is this therapeutic impass? 
(A) Counter transference 
(B) Transference 
(C) Resistance 
(D) Reflection 

22. A mentally ill client on treatment with antipsychotic is admitted with rapid onset of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered consciousness and elevated Creatine phosphokinase. Which side effect should the nurse suspect for? 
(A) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome 
(B) Tardive dyskinesia 
(C) Dystonia 
(D) Akathisia 

23. A client develops clouding of consciousness, disorientation and hallucination, two to four days after complete abstinence of alcohol. Which is this withdrawal syndrome? 
(A) Alcoholic seizures 
(B) Alcoholic hallucinosis 
(C) Delirium tremens 
(D) Amnestic disorder 

24. A client during sleep experience temporary sudden loss of muscle tone, causing weakness and immobilization, which is referred as? 
(A) Cataplexy 
(B) Carebaria 
(C) Catalepsy 
(D) Cathexis 

25. When interviewing a client with schizophrenia, the nurse identifies that he has delusion of persecution. The most appropriate behaviour of the nurse would be : 
(A) Debate the patient regarding delusion 
(B) Dwell into the content of delusion 
(C) Tell the patient that it can discussed 
(D) Acknowledge the feelings and reinforce reality 

26. The personality disorder characterised by odd and magical thinking, eccentric behaviour, suspiciousness, unusual perceptual experiences and inappropriate affect is : 
(A) Schizotypal 
(B) Schizoid 
(C) Paranoid 
(D) Histrionic 

27. A disorder characterised by erratic and dysarrhythmic pattern of speech, with jerky and rapid spurting of words and the affected person is unaware of the impairment : 
(A) Stuttering 
(B) Cluttering 
(C) Stammering 
(D) Perseveration 

28. A community mental health nurse imparts life skill education for adolescents. Here the nurse use which level of prevention : 
(A) Secondary 
(B) Tertiary 
(C) Primary 
(D) Rehabilitation 

29. A patient diagnosed to have mania exhibit severe elevation of mood associated with delusion of grandeur. This patient is having : 
(A) Euphoria 
(B) Elation 
(C) Exaltation 
(D) Ecstasy 

30. When rendering care to client with dementia, which of the nursing intervention is not appropriate? 
(A) Providing an inconsistent physical environment and daily routine 
(B) Providing an environment with reduced stimuli 
(C) Speaking in a low, clear tone 
(D) Use distraction to manage behaviour 

31. Which among the following is the most reliable method to confirm the proper placement of endotracheal tube? 
(A) Chest movement 
(B) Capnography 
(C) O2 saturation 
(D) Conscous level 

32. Ipsilateral motor loss and contra lateral loss of pain and temperature are seen in : 
(A) Brown sequard syndrome 
(B) Central cord syndrome 
(C) Anterior cord syndrome 
(D) Posterior cord syndrome 

33. The ECG finding in hyperkalemia is : 
(A) Peaked T wave and prominent U wave 
(B) Flat T wave and prominent U wave 
(C) Peaked T wave and widened QRS 
(D) Peaked T wave and narrow QRS 

34. Which among the following intervention should be done first by the nurse when a patient has sucking chest wound? 
(A) Be prepared for chest tube insertion 
(B) Cover the wound with a vented dressing 
(C) Notify the physician and start I/V line 
(D) Remove the object that cause chest wound 

35. The necrosed tissue at centre of injury with regions of tissue viability towards periphery in burns injury is : 
(A) Zone of infarction 
(B) Zone of coagulation 
(C) Zone of stasis 
(D) Zone of ischemia 

36. Which of the following position is advised after vitrectomy if a gas bubble is used? 
(A) High fowlers position 
(B) Supine position 
(C) Prone position 
(D) Side lying position 

37. The nurse should advice to do the following activity to a patient who underwent lower limb ampulation : 
(A) Avoid adduction, and flexion of lower limb 
(B) Lie in prone position 
(C) Keep a pillow between the legs 
(D) Place pillow under the residual limb 

38. Peripheral administration of chemotherapeutic agent is limited to a duration of : 
(A) < 1 hr 
(B) < 2 hrs 
(C) < 1½ hrs 
(D) < 3 hrs 

39. Which among the following are adverse effects noticed with erythropoetin therapy in end stage kidney disease? 
(A) Hypertension, hyperkalemia and increased clotting tendancy 

(B) Hypotension, hypokalemia and increased clotting tendancy 
(C) Hypotension, seizures and increased clotting tendancy 
(D) Hypertension, seizures and increased bleeding tendancy 

40. Which of the following statement is incorrect related to antivenin infusion? 
(A) Antivenin is most effective if given within 4 hours 
(B) The total dose should be infused during first 4-6 hours 
(C) Administer cortico steroids along with antivenin therapy with in first 6 hours 
(D) There is no limit to number of antivenin vials that can be administered 

41. How much is the maximum ml of solution that can be absorbed by a well developed deltoid muscle? 
(A) 1 ml 
(B) 0.5 ml 
(C) 1.5 ml 
(D) 2 ml 

42. The type of bandage used to cover the distal part of the body is : 
(A) Spiral turns 
(B) Spiral reverse 
(C) Recurrent turns 
(D) Circular turns 

43. How much is the maximum amount that a nurse should administer the formulation with dextrose through peripheral vein while giving parenteral nutrition? 
(A) 5% 
(B) 10% 
(C) 15% 
(D) 20% 

44. Which among the following vitamin should a nurse restrict for a patient who is advised to undergo Hemoccult test? 
(A) Vit A 
(B) Vit K 
(C) Vit C 
(D) Vit D 

45. A patient had an eye injury and brought to ophthalmic hospital. Which of the following intervention should not be advised? 
(A) Elevate the head end of bed at 45°
(B) Give food or fluids to the patient of he/she asks 
(C) Instruct the patient not to blow the nose 
(D) Do not apply pressure on the eyes 

46. Depressed deep tendon reflex is seen in : 
(A) Hypocalcemia 
(B) Hypomagnesemia 
(C) Hypermagnesemia 
(D) Hypernatremia 

47. Human anatomical wastes are disposed in : 
(A) Green bag 
(B) Black bag 
(C) Red bag 
(D) Yellow bag 

48. The body temperature fluctuates more than 2C above normal but does not reach normal between fluctuation is called : 
(A) Intermittent fever 
(B) Relapsing fever 
(C) Constant fever 
(D) Remittent fever 

49. Which among the following manifestations should be observed by the nurse while caring for patients receiving epidural morphine? 
(A) Urinary retention and pruritus 
(B) Hypotension and incontinence urine 
(C) Hypertension and respiratory depression 
(D) Hypertension and Pruritus 

50. The type of enema administered to relieve gaseous distention is : 
(A) Cleansing enema 
(B) Carminative enema 
(C) Antihelmintic enema 
(D) Retention enema 

51. The community health nurse who discourages the children from adopting harmful lifestyles, this type of prevention is : 
(A) Primordial Prevention 
(B) Primary Prevention 
(C) Secondary Prevention 
(D) Tertiary Prevention 

52. A dual record which consists of continuous enumeration of births and deaths by an enumerator and an independent survey every 6 months by an investigator supervisor is : 
(A) Census 
(B) Population Survey 
(C) Health Survey 
(D) Sample Registration System 

53. Under ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) Scheme, there is an anganwadi worker for a population of : 
(A) 400-600 
(B) 400-800 
(C) 500-1000 
(D) 500-800 

54. Arthralgia is the adverse event following the administration of : 
(A) Rubella Vaccine 
(B) Oral Polio Vaccine 
(C) DPT Vaccine 
(D) JE Vaccine 

55. The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by the receiver : 
(A) Comprehension 
(B) Credibility 
(C) Motivation 
(D) Reinforcement 

56. A patient is on antituberculosis drug, reported the side effect of nystagmus. Which among the following antituberculosis drug cause the side effect of nystagmus? 
(A) Rifampicin 
(B) Ethambutol 
(C) Streptomycin 
(D) Pyrazinamide 

57. The Nalgonda technique is used for : 
(A) Iodination of water 
(B) Chlorination of water 
(C) Fluoridation of water 
(D) Defluoridation of water 

58. Poor man’s meat is : 
(A) Cereals 
(B) Pulses 
(C) Millets 
(D) Nuts 

59. Deficiency of niacin results in : 
(A) Scurvy 
(B) Rickets 
(C) Megaloblastic anaemia 
(D) Pellagra 

60. Since Vanaspati is lacking in fat soluble vitamin, it is fortified with : 
(A) Vitamin B & C 
(B) Vitamin A & B 
(C) Vitamin A & D 
(D) Vitamin E & K 

61. The best criterion for adequate ventilation in neonatal resuscitation is improvement in : 
(A) Blood Pressure 
(B) Respiratory rate 
(C) Heart rate 
(D) Temperature 

62. The most important pathognomonic radiographic feature of Necrotizing Enterocolitis in new born babies : 
(A) String sign 
(B) Pneumotosis intestinalis 
(C) Air bronchogram 
(D) Air under diaphragm 

63. Peri-conceptional intake of folate daily is a well-recognized strategy for preventing occurrence of : 
(A) Duodenal atresia 
(B) Diaphragmatic hernia 
(C) Oesophageal atresia 
(D) Neural tube defects 

64. The clinical criteria for diagnosis in Infective Endocarditis in children is : 
(A) Jone’s criteria 
(B) Duke’s criteria 
(C) Bell’s criteria 
(D) Ann Arbor criteria 

65. The CNS prophylaxis as specific therapy for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia in children is intra- thecal administration of : 
(A) Vincristine 
(B) Prednisolone 
(C) Cyclophosphomide 
(D) Methotrexate 

66. According to Erikson, psychosocial development stage for pre-schoolers is termed as : 
(A) Autonomy Vs Shame/doubt 
(B) Initiative Vs Guilt 
(C) Industry Vs Inferiority 
(D) Trust Vs Mistrust 

67. The calories per ml for high energy milk (milk-100ml, sugar-1tsp and oil-1/2 tsp) in nutritional management of PEM is : 
(A) 25 Cal/100ml
(B) 50 Cal/100ml 
(C) 100 Cal/100ml 
(D) 150 Cal/100ml 

68. The characteristic sand like lesions on buccal mucosa in Measles in children is : 
(A) Bitot’s spot 
(B) Koplik’s spot 
(C) Gingivitis 
(D) Leukoplakia 

69. The classical feature in development assessment suggestive of cerebral palsy is: 
(A) Persistence of Tonic Neck posture 
(B) Poor Sucking reflex 
(C) Poor Moro Reflex 
(D) Inco-ordinated swallow reflex 

70. The maintenance therapy in fluid management for a hospitalized child weighing 15kg is : 
(A) 1500 ml 
(B) 1250 ml 
(C) 1100 ml 
(D) 1000 ml 

71. What is the compression ventilation ratio in newborn resuscitation? 
(A) 15:1 
(B) 30:2 
(C) 3:1 
(D) 1:3 

72. Which is the single most important galactopoietic hormone? 
(A) Prolactin 
(B) Estrogen 
(C) Oxytocin 
(D) Progesterone 

73. Which manifestation is more significant to predict maternal and fetal outcome in pre- eclampsia? 
(A) Level of blood pressure 
(B) Proteinuria 
(C) Sudden edema 
(D) Altered amniotic fluid volume 

74. Which of the following statement is / are correct about signs of placental separation? 
(i) Uterus becomes firm 
(ii) Fundal height is raised 
(iii) Permanent shortening of cord 
(A) Only (ii) and (iii) 
(B) Only (i) and (ii) 
(C) Only (i) and (iii) 
(D) All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii) 

75. Which is mostly the cause of maternal death? 
(A) Puerperal sepsis 
(B) Hypertension during pregnancy 
(C) Abortion 
(D) Postpartum hemorrhage 

76. Which of the following is included in active management of third stage of labor? 
(i) Administration of injection oxytocin 40 units 
(ii) Controlled cord traction 
(iii) Examination of placenta and membranes 
(A) Only (i) and (ii) 
(B) Only (ii) and (iii) 
(C) Only (i) and (iii) 
(D) All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii) 

77. Which is the most debilitating sequelae of menopause? 
(A) Osteoporosis 
(B) Dysuria 
(C) Hot flush 
(D) Heart disease 

78. What is the failure of emission of semen called? 
(A) Azoospermia 
(B) Aspermia 
(C) Asthenozoospermia
(D) Necrozoospermia 

79. Which of the following has painless bleeding as classical feature? 
(A) Ectopic pregnancy and placenta previa 
(B) Abruptio placentae and vasa previa 
(C) Inevitable and threatened miscarriage 
(D) Placenta previa and vasa previa 

80. What are the absolute features of non physiological jaundice? 
(i) Bilirubin level increasing at the rate of > 5mg/dl/day 
(ii) Clinical jaundice persisting more than one week in a term infant 
(iii) Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of birth 
(A) Only (ii) and (iii) 
(B) Only (i) and (iii) 
(C) Only (i) and (ii) 
(D) All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii) 

81. The philosophical belief where there is a blend of useful and essential aspects of various 
philosophies is : 
(A) Eclecticism
(B) Pragmatism                                       
(C) Reconstructionalism
(D) Progressivism 

82. The teaching method where there is direct visualized explanation of procedures and concepts is : 
(A) Programmed instruction 
(B) Demonstration 
(C) Simulation 
(D) Seminar 

83. Which is not a criteria of true experimental design? 
(A) Manipulation 
(B) Randomization 
(C) Control 
(D) Comparison 

84. The type of evaluation used for assigning grades to the learner : 
(A) Formative evaluation 
(B) Summative evaluation 
(C) Clinical evaluation 
(D) Viva voce 

85. The trust worthiness of a tool used in research : 
(A) Validity 
(B) Objectivity 
(C) Reliability 
(D) Specificity 

86. The best measure of central tendancy is : 
(A) Mean 
(B) Median 
(C) Mode 
(D) Range 

87. The type of research which examines the culture of a group of people is : 
(A) Phenomenological research 
(B) Historical research 
(C) Ethnographic research 
(D) Action research 

88. Select the most appropriate research instrument that can be used to collect the information on knowledge of regarding measures of prevention of covid-19 disease among general public is : 
(A) Rating scale 
(B) Questionnaire 
(C) Likert scale 
(D) Check list 

89. Large subdivision of the subject matter in a curriculum is : 
(A) Topic 
(B) Programme 
(C) Unit 
(D) Lesson 

90. The test used for simultaneous comparison of more than two samples is : 
(A) F test 
(B) Z test 
(C) t test 
(D) Wilcoxan signed rank test 

91. International nurses day theme for the year 2020 is : 
(A) Nurses a voice to lead-Health for a all 
(B) Nurses a voice to lead-health is a human right 
(C) Nurses a voice to lead-nursing the world to health 
(D) Nurses a voice to lead-Achieving the sustainable development goals 

92. Informal communication is an organisation is: 
(A) Grapewine communication 
(B) Diagonal communication 
(C) Upward communication 
(D) Downward communication 

93. One among the following is a technique of inventory control : 
(A) SWOT analysis 
(B) VED analysis 
(C) Supply performance 
(D) Zerobudgetting 

94. The year in which INC established : 
(A) 1947 
(B) 1949 
(C) 1946 
(D) 1948 

95. The statement that describes the purpose of an organization : 
(A) Mission 
(B) Objectives 
(C) Goals 
(D) Policies 

96. The statement that describes the educational qualifications, experiences, and qualities required for a job : 
(A) Job specification 
(B) Job description 
(C) Job analysis 
(D) Job summary 

97. The leadership style using task oriented approach : 
(A) Authoritarian style 
(B) Participative style 
(C) Charismatic style 
(D) Transformational style 

98. A false harmful written report is : 
(A) Felony 
(B) Libel 
(C) Summons 
(D) Slander 

99. An example of a single use plan : 
(A) Procedure manual 
(B) Individual policy 
(C) Budget 
(D) Objectives 

100. Graphic representation of the structure of an organisation : 
(A) Sociogram 
(B) Organogram 
(C) Master rotation plan 
(D) Schedule

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