Blood Bank technician Grade II Question Paper and Answer Key

 Question Code:031/2020

Name of Post: Blood Bank technician Grade II  

Department: Medical Education Department

Cat. No. 127/2018

 Date of Test: 19.09. 2020

---------------------------------------------

 
 1. The process of formation of glucose from lactate is called as
 A) Glycolysis
 B) Gluconeogenesis
 C) Glycolysis
 D) Lipogenesis

 2. Presence of protein in a sample of urine is detected by
 A) Rotheras test
 B) Benzidine test
 C) Benedicts test
 D) Heat coagulation test

 3. Optimal levels of LDL Cholesterol is
 A) <100mg/dl
 B) >150mg/dl
 C) 100-150mg/dl
 D) >200mg/dl

 

 

  6. According to Beer’s law, concentration of analyte in a solution is directly proportional to
 A) Transmittance
 B) Absorbance
 C) Path length
 D) Cuvette thickness

 7. To prepare 10mI of 6N HCI, the volume of concentrated HCl required is (Normality of Conc.HCl is 12)
 A) 5ml
 B) 0.5ml
 C) 7.5ml
 D) 2.5ml

 8. The ideal blood collection tube for Glucose estimation is
 A) Heparin
 B) EDTA
 C) Sodium citrate
 D) Sodium fluoride
 
9. The fraction of protein that moves faster when subjected to protein electrophoresis is
 A) �-globulin
 B) �-globulin
 C) Albumin
 D) �-globulin
 
10. Serum Total Protein of a 55 yr. old male is 6g/dl, ‘Serum Albumin is 3g/dl. A/G ratio is
 A) 1 : 1
 B) 1 : 3
 C) 3 : 1
 D) 2 : 1

 11. When subjected to urine aminogram, the solvent front was 6 cm and solute front was 5 cm, the Rf  Value is
 A) 0.83
 B) 1.2
 C) 1.0
 D) 0.5

 12. Glass Cuvettes must not be cleaned with
 A) Mild detergents
 B) Ethanol
 C) Dichromate solution
 D) Concentrated HCl
 
13. Which of these is not a method for estimating blood glucose ?
 A) Hexokinase
 B) Glucokinase
 C) Glucose oxidase-peroxidase
 D) O-toluidine

 14. All of these are Ketone bodies except
 A) Acetone
 B) Acetoacetate
 C) Acetate
 D) �-hydroxy butyrate

 15. The co-factor required for transamination reactions is
 A) NADH
 B) NADPH
 C) TPP
 D) PLP

 16. Bile salts and Bile pigments in urine are seen in
 A) Obstructive jaundice
 B) Hepatic jaundice
 C) Pre-hepatic jaundice
 D) Latent jaundice

 17. When a molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and reemits light at a longer wavelength it is called
 A) Absorbance
 B) Phosphorescence
 C) Fluorescence
 D) Transmittance

 18. Following were the lipid profile results of a 45 yr. old male
 Serum Triglyceride-150mg/dl
 Serum Total Cholesterol-200mg/dl
 Serum HDL Cholesterol-40mg/dl
 The Serum LDL Cholesterol of this man is
 A) 100mg/dl
 B) 130mg/dl
 C) 90mg/dl
 D) Insufficient data to calculate

 19. If the Blood urea of a patient is 85.6, then Blood urea Nitrogen would be
 A) 20
 B) 30
 C) 40
 D) 50

 20. The correct order of draw of blood sample is
 A) Red tube, Green tube, Lavender tube, Grey tube
 B) Lavender tube, Grey tube, Green tube, Red tube
 C) Red tube, Green tube, Grey tube, Lavender tube
 D) Lavender tube, Green tube, Red tube, Grey tube


  22. The specific gravity of an Urine sample was found to be 1.005 at 30°C. After correcting for temperature the specific gravity of the sample would be
 A) 1.015
 B) 1.010
 C) 1.020
 D) 1.025

 23. Transporting of blood sample in icepack is required for the estimation of
 A) Ethanol
 B) Ammonia
 C) Testosterone
 D) Prolactin
 
24. VLDL should not be calculated if serum triglyceride is greater than
 A) 300mg/dl
 B) 200mg/dl
 C) 400mg/dl
 D) 500mg/dl

 25. All of these are properties of an ideal quality control sample except
 A) Its matrix should be to similar to patient sample
 B) Should be stable for longer periods
 C) Should have minimum vial to vial variability
 D) Lyophilized controls are convenient than liquid controls

 26. Which of the following is a Gram positive bacteria ?
 A) Acinetobacter baumanii
 B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 C) Neisseria meningitides
 D) Moraxella catarrhalis
 
27. Disinfection removes _____________ from the surface or medium.
 A) All microorganisms
 B) Bacterial spores
 C) Chemical toxins
 D) Pathogenic organisms


 28. All the following discs are used to test Antibiotic sensitivity for Pseudomonas except
 A) Ceftazidime
 B) Ciprofloxacin
 C) Gentamicin
 D) Vancomycin

 29. What is the rate of HIV transmission by a contaminated needle prick ?
 A) 0.03%
 B) 0.3%
 C) 3%
 D) 30%

 30. Which of the following is an agglutination test ?
 A) HBsAg test
 B) Elek’s Gel test
 C) Western Blot test
 D) Widal test

 31. Which of the following is an anaerobic culture method ?
 A) Alkaline pyrogallol method
 B) Castaneda method
 C) Petroff’s method
 D) Slide culture method

 32. The protective HBV antibody level is
 A) 0.1 mlU/ml
 B) 1 mlU/ml
 C) 10 mlU/ml
 D) 100 mlU/ml

 33. MIC of an antibiotic can be tested by
 A) E test method
 B) Kirby-Bauer method
 C) PCR method
 D) Stoke’s method

 34. Bile aesculin test is to
 A) Assess water quality
 B) Classify vibrio cholerae
 C) Diagnose enterococci
 D) Diagnose pneumococci

 35. Which of the following is not a transport medium ?
 A) Cary-Blair medium
 B) V-R medium
 C) Loeffler’s serum slope medium
 D) Pike’s medium

  36. All the following features are shown by enterobacteriaceae except
 A) Gram negative
 B) Ferment glucose
 C) Nitrate test positive
 D) Oxidase test positive

 37. The best way to collect sputum sample for Mycobacterium culture and microscopy
 A) 3 samples collected by the patient at 1 hour interval
 B) 24 hour sample collected
 C) First morning sample collected in 3 containers
 D) First morning samples of 3 days
 
38. Which is true for STS (Standard Tests for Syphilis) ?
 A) Antigen used is Treponema pallidum
 B) Chance for False positive test results
 C) Patient remain test positive for life
 D) Highly specific test

 39. The primary diagnosis of HIV is done by
 A) Three rapid tests
 B) ELISA and Western blot
 C) One rapid test and PCR
 D) One rapid test and CD4 count

 40. Which of the following is characteristic of hookworm egg ?
 A) Non bile stained, segmented ovum
 B) Non bile stained, unsegmented ovum
 C) Bile stained, mucous plugs, tadpole larva
 D) Bile stained, 3 layered coat, single ovum

 41. To prepare 1% hypochlorite, how much of bleaching powder is to be added to 1 litre of water ?
 A) 1 gm
 B) 10 gm
 C) 20 gm
 D) 30 gm
 
42. As per Biomedical waste management guidelines, the blood bag after use is to be discarded in bucket with __________ colour.
 A) Blue
 B) Red
 C) White
 D) Yellow

 43. Standard precautions include all except
 A) Gloves
 B) Mask
 C) Hand hygiene
 D) Cohorting

 44. Tyndallisation is a method of sterilization using
 A) Alcohol
 B) Dry heat
 C) Radiation
 D) Steam

 45. Which of the following is an enriched media for Salmonella species ?
 A) Bile broth
 B) Glucose broth
 C) Mac Conkey’s broth
 D) Selenite F broth

 46. Select the organism which is oxidase test negative.
 A) Clostridium tetani
 B) Haemophilus influenzae
 C) Neisseria meningitides
 D) Vibrio cholera

 47. Which of the following antibiotic disc is used to identify MRSA ?
 A) Cefoxitin
 B) Erythromycin
 C) Penicillin
 D) Vancomycin

 48. Pick up the lactose fermenting bacteria from the following.
 A) Proteus mirabilis
 B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 C) Salmonella typhi
 D) Staphylococcus aureus

 49. The peripheral smear of a clinically suspected case of malaria shows intra erythrocytic, multiple ring forms and some of the rings show multiple nuclei also. Which is the most probable species ?
 A) Plasmodium vivax
 B) Plasmodium falciparum
 C) Plasmodium malariae
 D) Plasmodium ovale

 50. Cryptococcus neoformans is
 A) Parasite causing diarrhea
 B) Fungus causing meningitis
 C) Bacteria showing capsule
 D) None of the above

 51. Bombay blood group is seen in blood group type
 A) A
 B) B
 C) AB
 D) O
 
52. Rh HDN occurs in
 A) First O negative child in O positive mother
 B) Second B negative child in B positive mother
 C) First A positive child in A negative mother
 D) Second B positive child in B negative mother

 53. Direct Coombs test positive means Coombs serum has bound to
 A) Antibody in the plasma
 B) Antibody coated on RBC
 C) Antigen on RBC
 D) Antigen on WBC
 
54. Copper sulphate in blood bank is used to screen for
 A) Antibody level
 B) Hemoglobin level
 C) HIV positivity
 D) Malaria positivity
 
55. Anticoagulant used in blood bank is
 A) ACD
 B) CPD
 C) CPDA
 D) AII of the above
 
56. Febrile reaction occurs in transfusion reaction due to
 A) RBC lysis
 B) Platelet aggregation
 C) Excess anticoagulant
 D) WBC antigen sensitization

 57. Indications for FFP
 A) Coagulation factor deficiency
 B) Anaemia
 C) Leukemia
 D) Thrombocytopenia

 58. On high speed centrifuging of blood we obtain
 A) PRP
 B) WBC cocentrate
 C) RBC concentrate
 D) Platelet concentrate

 59. Positive Coombs test means we get
 A) Agglutination
 B) Rouleaux formation
 C) Cell separation
 D) Cell lysis

 60. AII are transfusion transmitted hepatitis except
 A) A
 B) B
 C) C
 D) D

 61. Formalin fixative used in histopathology is
 A) 10%
 B) 20%
 C) 30%
 D) 40%
 
62. Technique used in decalcification are all except
 A) Hydrochloric acid
 B) Nitric acid
 C) EDTA
 D) Sulphuric acid

 63. Tissue section is cut in histopathology using
 A) Cryostat
 B) Microtome
 C) Processor
 D) lncubator

 64. Formalin pigment is
 A) Acid formaldehyde hematin
 B) Alkali formaldehyde hematin
 C) Albumin formaldehyde hematin
 D) Lipid formaldehyde hematin

 65. Steps in automated tissue processor are all except
 A) Clearing
 B) Dehydration
 C) Embedding
 D) Impregnation
 
66. Frozen section is done in tissue received in
 A) Formalin
 B) Gluteraldehyde
 C) Carnoys fixative
 D) Saline
 
67. Fixative used in cytology is
 A) 10% formalin
 B) 2% gluteraldehyde
 C) Osmium tetroxide
 D) 95% ethyl alcohol
 
68. Commonly used stain in cytology is
 A) H & E
 B) PAP
 C) GIEMSA
 D) Leishman

 69. Van Gieson stain is used to demonstrate
 A) Carbohydrate
 B) Connective tissue
 C) Lipid
 D) Pigments
 
70. PAS stain is used to demonstrate
 A) Carbohydrate
 B) Connective tissue
 C) Lipid
 D) Pigments

 71. Cells without nucleus in blood are
 A) Erythrocyte
 B) Lymphocyte
 C) Monocyte
 D) Neutrophil

 72. Hemoglobin is composed of
 A) One iron and one globin
 B) One iron and 4 globin
 C) 4 iron and one globin
 D) 2 iron and 2 globin

 73. At which stage of RBC development hemoglobin first appears in the cell ?
 A) Pronormoblast
 B) Early normoblast
 C) lntermediate normoblast
 D) Reticulocyte

 74. The cell in which Barr body counted is
 A) Lymphocyte
 B) Neutrophil
 C) Erythrocyte
 D) Squamous epithelial

 75. Myeloid stem cell gives rise to all except
 A) Erythrocyte
 B) Neutrophil
 C) Lymphocyte
 D) Platelet

 76. Cell producing platelets are
 A) Myeloblast
 B) Lymphoblast
 C) Megakaryocyte
 D) Pronormoblast
 
77. Reagent used for sickling test is
 A) Sodium nitroprusside
 B) Sodium metabisulphite
 C) Sodium chloride
 D) Sodium nitrate

 78. Pathology of thalassemia is
 A) RBC number is increased
 B) Globin production decreased
 C) Iron is deficient
 D) Abnormal globin produced

 79. Pernicious anaemia is a specific type of
 A) Dimorphic anaemia
 B) Microcytic anaemia
 C) Macrocytic anaemia
 D) Normocytic anaemia

 80. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to
 A) Hemoglobin structural defect
 B) Hemoglobin quantitative defect
 C) Membrane defect
 D) Enzyme defect

 81. Cell increased in acute leukemia is
 A) Myeloblast
 B) Myelocyte
 C) Metamyelocyte
 D) Neutrophil

 82. Cell increased in multiple myeloma is
 A) Myeloblast
 B) Lymphoblast
 C) Promyelocyte
 D) Plasma cell
 
83. Prothrombin time measures the abnormality in
 A) Extrinsic pathway
 B) Intrinsic pathway
 C) Common pathway
 D) Vessel wall

 84. Partial thromboplastin time measures the status of
 A) Extrinsic pathway
 B) Intrinsic pathway
 C) Common pathway
 D) Vessel wall
 
85. The anticoagulant used for ESR estimation is sodium
 A) Fluoride
 B) Oxalate
 C) EDTA
 D) Citrate

 86. The anticoagulant used for osmotic fragility is
 A) Heparin
 B) Oxalate
 C) EDTA
 D) Citrate
 
87. Hematocrit means
 A) ESR
 B) MCV
 C) MCH
 D) PCV
 
88. Leishman stain is used to stain
 A) Blood smear
 B) Cytology smear
 C) Sputum smear
 D) Squash imprint
 
89. Westergrens pipette is used to estimate
 A) ESR
 B) RBC count
 C) WBC count
 D) PCV
 
90. LE cell preparation is done to demonstrate
 A) Antinuclear antibody
 B) Red cell antigen
 C) Barr body
 D) Sickling

 91. Test for blood in urine is
 A) Benedict test
 B) Benzidine test
 C) Rothera test
 D) Hays test

 92. Casts in urine are
 A) Protein coagulated in tubules
 B) Salts crystallized in urine
 C) Bacteria forming clumps
 D) Extraneous objects
 
93. Specific test for glucose in urine is
 A) Urine strip test
 B) Benedict test
 C) Barfoed test
 D) Hays test

 94. Glycosuria means urine contains
 A) Glucose
 B) Acetoacetic acid
 C) Glycogen
 D) Beta hydroxybutyric acid

 95. Compared to exudates the transudate would have
 A) Lower specific gravity
 B) More cells
 C) More protein
 D) Association with infections
 
96. CSF fluid processing can be delayed upto
 A) Half hour
 B) 1 hour
 C) 1 and half hour
 D) 2 hours

 97. Methods to concentrate the fluid specimen while processing are all except
 A) Cytocentrifuge
 B) Millipore filter
 C) Sedimentation
 D) Distillation

 98. Quality of Sputum smear report depends on
 A) Adequacy of sample produced by patient
 B) Area identified for pick and smear
 C) Smearing uniformity
 D) AII of the above

 99. Stool occult blood test is indicated in all except
 A) Anemia
 B) Gastrointestinal malignancy
 C) ln cases of unknown primary malignancy
 D) Hemorrhoids

 100. Time required for fixation of cytology smears is
 A) 10 mins
 B) 15 mins
 C) 20 mins
 D) 30 mins
 

 

 

 

1 comment: