Assistant Professor in Surgical Gastroenterology Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Paper Code: 34/2024/OL
Category Code: 339/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Surgical Gastroenterology
Date of Test 04-04-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-The following statements about caudate lobe are true except
        A:-The right portion of the caudate receives portal blood only from right portal vein and the left portion, only from left portal vein
        B:-Hepatic venous drainage of caudate lobe is directly to the IVC
        C:-Hepatic veins from caudate may drain into posterior surface of IVC
        D:-The normal caudate can sometimes completely encircle the IVC
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question2:-The following are true on caudate lobe except
        A:-Caudate lobe to R. liver ratio is a reliable method of identifying chronic liver disease
        B:-Caudate bile ducts drain most often to the L. hepatic duct
        C:-Caudate excision is an essential part of parenchyma conserving liver resection for Hilar cholangiocarcinoma
        D:-Caudate forms roughly 1% of liver volume
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-All the following are features of Achalasia Cardia except
        A:-Failure of LES to relax
        B:-Absence of peristalsis in oesophagus
        C:-Retrosternal pain due to associated reflux
        D:-Higher chance of oesophageal cancer
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-All the following are true of the LES except
        A:-It should effectively function as a oneway valve
        B:-Gastric sling fibres play an important part
        C:-Diaphragmatic crura contribute
        D:-Phrenooesophageal membrane fixes the GE junction
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question5:-The following are true about Lymphatics of stomach except
        A:-Lymphatics of pylorus communicate with that of duodenum
        B:- Lymphadenectomy sometimes involves removal of the spleen
        C:-Some type of Lymphadenectomy is required for all stages of carcinoma stomach
        D:-Lymphadenectomy can be carried out en bloc or after removal to stomach
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-All the true about Lymphatics of stomach except
        A:-Lymphatics of cardia communicate with that of lower oesophagus
        B:-Resection of all station Lymph nodes necessary in Lymphadenectomy
        C:-Bulk of the Lymphatics are in the submucosal plane
        D:-Lymphatics follow the arteries
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-The following are true about the rectum except
        A:-TME involves sharp circumferential dissection of the mesorectum
        B:-The rectum is usually 15 cm long
        C:-Lateral ligaments rarely contain the middle rectal arteries
        D:-The lowermost semilunar fold corresponds to the anterior peritoneal reflection
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Involuntary resting anal sphincter tone is contributed by
        A:-Equally by EAS, IAS and anal cushions
        B:-Contributed in the order EAS, IAS and anal cushions
        C:-Contributed in the order IAS, EAS and anal cushions
        D:-Contributed in the order IAS, EAS, anal cushions and puborectalis
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-All are true about common pancreatio-biliary channel except
        A:-Predisposes to recurrent acute pancreatitis
        B:-Predisposes to choledochal cyst
        C:-Seen in 5% of the population
        D:-Unlikely to predispose to biliary malignancy
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question10:-Following are true about annular pancreas except
        A:-It is a ring of pancreatic tissue which may congenitally embrace any part of the Duodenum, usually second part
        B:-Rarely contains any pancreatic duct
        C:-Presents as duodenal obstruction
        D:-Duodenojajunostomy is the procedure of choice
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question11:- therapy is indicated when
        A:-SP < 95%
        B:-Pa < 80 mmHg
        C:-Pa < 60 mmHg
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Humidification of oxygen is indicated when flow rate is above
        A:-2 Litres/mt
        B:-4 Litres/mt
        C:-8 Litres/mt
        D:-10 Litres/mt
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question13:-The following is true of pressure support mode ventilation except
        A:-Machine will assist to attain a preset pressure irrespective of whether there is patient effort
        B:-Patient determines the inspiratory and expiratory flow rate
        C:-When the preset airway pressure is reached, the machine cycles off
        D:-Every breath is an assisted breath
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question14:-All are true about SIMV mode ventilation except
        A:-Not a suitable mode for weaning
        B:-If no breaths are initiated by the patient within a specified time, the machine will deliver a mandatory breath
        C:-If the patient takes a breath before the mandatory breath, the machine will recycle and wait for the next effort and assist that
        D:-It can deliver 2 types of breath, assisted and mandatory
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question15:-The following are true regarding noninvasive ventilatory support except
        A:-Full face masks are the most effective method
        B:-Advantageous in hemodynamically unstable patients
        C:-Oral feeds cannot be allowed
        D:-Decreases incidence of nosocomial infections
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-Prolonged mechanical ventilation may be due
        A:-Sleep deprivation
        B:-Nutritional deficiency
        D:-All the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-Weaning from ventilation is not indicated when
        A:-Spontaneous effort present
        B:-Any amount of inotropic support
        C:-PaO2 /FiO2 : 100
        D:-FiO2 < 0.5
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question18:-Following procedures may help in weaning from ventilatory support except
        A:-Totally avoiding sedatives
        B:-Correction of magnesium and phosphorous
        C:-Head up position
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-All the following are true except
        A:-Aerosolized N-acetyl cysteine has low efficacy in clearing secretions
        B:-Aerosolized antimicrobials have important role in respiratory infections
        C:-Aerosolized sterile water helps in cleaning secretions
        D:-3% hypertonic saline useful in pulmonary toileting
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question20:-Type III respiratory failure is that which occurs due to
        A:-Ventilator associated lung injury
        B:-Postoperative Atelectasis
        C:-Ventilator associated Pneumonia
        D:-Over sedation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-The following are true about Lactic acidosis except
        A:-Change in pH is a sensitive marker
        B:-Defined as lactate level > 4 mmol/L with pH < 7.35
        C:-Sensitive marker of adequate liver perfusion
        D:-Can be elevated in nonischaemic conditions
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question22:-Following are true of ventilation perfusion mismatch except
        A:-Seen in atelectasis, lung oedema
        B:-Can occur in end stage liver disease
        C:-Can be corrected invariably by increasing Fi
        D:-Can occur in congenital heart disease
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question23:-All the following are causes of metabolic alkalosis except
        B:-High volume gastric aspirate
        C:-Excess bicarbonate administration
        D:-Pancreatic fistula
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question24:-Following are true regarding venous blood gas analysis except
        A:-Venous co2 tension is a good surrogate marker of arterial co2
        B:-Venous PCo2 PC > 45 mmHg highly predicts arterial hypercarbia
        C:-Venous o2 saturation is a good indicator of oxygen delivery
        D:-Easy to obtain samples for testing
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question25:-The recommended method of assessing weaning from ventilation is
        A:-Oxygen saturation level
        B:-Combination of heart rate, BP and oxygen saturation
        C:-Arterial blood gas
        D:-Venous blood gas
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-Which of the following is false about achalasia cardia ?
        A:-Median IRP > 15 mmHg
        B:-100% failed peristalsis
        C:-DCI < 200 mmHg-s-cm
        D:-Panesophageal pressurisation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Which of the following is true of esophageal pressure topography ?
        A:-Premature contraction - distal latency < 4s
        B:-Failed contraction - DCI < 200 mm Hg-s-cm
        C:-Fragmented contraction - > 5 cm break in 20 mmHg isobaric contour
        D:-Hypercontractile contraction - DCI > 4000 mm Hg-s-cm
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Which among the following is a minor disorder of motility as per the Chicago classification v3.0 ?
        A:-Absent contractility
        B:-Distal esophageal spasm
        C:-Hypercontractile esophagus
        D:-Ineffective esophageal motility
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-Which of the following is true about innervations of rectum and anal canal ?
        A:-Parasympathetic innervations is through hypogastric nerves
        B:-Sympathetic innervation of internal anal sphincter is from L5
        C:-Hypogastric nerve injury results in loss of external anal sphincter control
        D:-Nervi erigentes carries sympathetic fibres from S2, S3, S4
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-Which of the following is true about the Endorectal ultrasound findings of sphincter mechanism ?
        A:-External anal sphincter appear as a outer hypoechoic ring
        B:-Normal perineal body thickness is 10 to 15 mm in the middle anal canal
        C:-Puborectalis appears as a hypoechoic U-shaped structure
        D:-Internal anal sphincter defect is seen as disruption of inner hyperechoic ring
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question31:-Which of the following is not a maneuver for increasing the reach of an ileal pouch ?
        A:-Division of ileocolic pedicle
        B:-Transverse peritoneal incisions over SMA
        C:-Selective division of secondary arcade mesenteric vessels to apex
        D:-Creation of a W pouch
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-Which of the following is an extraintestinal manifestation of germline APC mutation in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis ?
        A:-Papillary carcinoma thyroid
        B:-Follicular carcinoma thyroid
        C:-Medullary carcinoma thyroid
        D:-Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question33:-Gardner syndrome includes all except
        B:-Epidermoid cysts
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-Church Staging system is used for
        A:-Desmoid disease
        B:-Duodenal adenoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question35:-Which of the following is true about serous cystic neoplasm of pancreas ?
        A:-Columnar cells with glycogen-poor cytoplasm
        B:-Multiple thin-walled cysts around a central scar
        C:-Predominately found in the pancreatic body
        D:-Starburst calcifications can be found in up to 90% of SCN
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question36:-All are true about mucinous cystic neoplasm of pancreas except
        A:-Lymph node excision should be limited to the immediate proximity of the pancreatic lesion
        B:-Mucinous neoplasms can be excluded if fluid CEA levels are less than 192 ng/mL
        C:-Periopheral eggshell pattern of calcification is seen on CT
        D:-High signal intensity on T1- and T2-weighted imaging
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-Indication for resection in serous cystic neoplasm of pancreas includes all except
        A:-Presence of symptoms
        B:-Cyst size greater than 4 cm
        C:-Uncertainty of diagnosis
        D:-Age more than 60
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question38:-Which of the following is true about solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of pancreas ?
        A:-High prevalence among elderly women
        B:-Cystic portion of the tumor is a true cyst
        C:-Positive staining for neuron-specific enolase, CD10
        D:-Cytoplasmic staining for -catenin
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-All are true about biliary cystadenoma (mucinous cysticneoplasm of liver) except
        A:-Can occur anywhere along the biliary tract
        B:-Inherent risk of malignant transformation
        C:-High proportion of tumors occur in segment V
        D:-Lack communication with biliary tree
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-Regarding biliary cystadenoma which of the following is true ?
        A:-Epithelial lining stain negative of CEA, CA19-9, CK-7
        B:-Epithelial lining stain positive for estrogen, progesterone receptors
        C:-Stroma stain positive for inhibin
        D:-Stroma stain negative for estrogen, progesterone receptors
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-Which of the following is true about apnoea test ?
        A:-Apnoea test can be performed before the brain stem reflex testing
        B:-Apnoea despite pC increase > 20 mmHg above baseline is a positive test
        C:-Ventilator is adjusted to have pC increase > 45 mmHg before apnoea test
        D:-Core body temperature should be < 35°C
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question42:-Which of the following is false about brainstem reflex testing in brain death certification ?
        A:-In children minimum interval between sets of test is 6 hours
        B:-Hypothermia affects brain stem reflex testing
        C:-Cold caloric testing is used in brain stem reflex testing
        D:-Known irreversible cause of coma is a prerequisite for testing
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question43:-Which of the following is not a component of Pediatric End-Stage Liver Disease scoring ?
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question44:-Which among the following is not a risk factor for hepatic artery psuedoaneurysm (HAA) after OLT ?
        A:-Local sepsis
        B:-Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy
        D:-Duct to duct anastamosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-All of the following are measures to prevent small for size syndrome except
        A:-GWBWR more than 0.8%
        B:-Splenic artery occlusion
        C:-Splenorenal shunt
        D:-Routine use of pentoxyphylline
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question46:-Which of the following is not a specific treatment for primary non function of OLT ?
        B:-Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)
        D:-Graft hepatectomy
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-Which of the following is not a risk factor for initial poor function of liver graft ?
        A:-Donation after cardiac death
        B:-Macrovesicular steatosis >30%
        C:-Prostaglandin E1 infusion
        D:-Peak sodium level >155 mEq/L
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question48:-Snover's triad includes all except
        A:-Septal ductopenia
        B:-Portal-based hepatitis
        C:-Nonsuppurative destructive cholangitis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question49:-Which of the following is true about cutting mode of monopolar diathermy ?
        A:-Energy dispersed over a large area
        B:-Dehydration and protein denaturation
        C:-Higher voltage current
        D:-Continuous current
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-All are the about vessel sealing devices except
        A:-Ligasure is an advanced bipolar device
        B:-Harmonic scalpel is a hand held ultrasonic transducer oscillating at 65kHz
        C:-Ligasure can seal vessels upto 7 mm diameter
        D:-Thunderbeat has simultaneous use of ultrasonic vibration and bipolar diathermy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-False about autoimmune pancreatitis is
        A:-Magnetic resonance imaging may show a sausage- like and edematous pancreas that may mimic pancreatic cancer
        B:-The pathogenesis of AIP involves both a cellular (CD4 and CD8 T cells) and a humoral immune-mediated attack on the ductal cells
        C:-Diagnosis can be made on the basis of typical imaging findings in an appropriate clinical context
        D:-It is mandatory to rule out pancreatic cancer to make a diagnosis of autoimmune pancreatitis
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-All the following constitute the stage 0 or asymptomatic stage of chronic pancreatitis except
        A:-Period without symptoms
        B:-(Recurrent) acute pancreatitis (no pain between episodes of acute pancreatitis)
        C:-Acute pancreatitis with severe complications
        D:-Acute pancreatitis: single episode
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question53:-All are acceptable procedures for treatment of chronic pancreatitis with inflammatory head mass except
        A:-Partington-Rochelle procedure
        B:-Frey procedure
        C:-Beger procedure
        D:-Whipple procedure
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-41 year old lady presents with history of right upper quadrant pain last night. Pain resolved with medical management at a local clinic. Ultrasound shows distended gall bladder with 2 calculi sized 8 mm and 9 mm. CBD is normal. Intrahepatic biliary radicles are normal. Her LFT is as follows : T. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL, AST 26 IU/L, ALT 19 IU/L, ALP 110 IU/L, GGT 25 IU/L, Albumin 3.9 g/dL. What is the next best option for her management ?
        C:-Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
        D:-UGI endoscopy
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question55:-All are true about chronic pancreatitis except
        A:-Previously considered idiopathic chronic pancreatitis are now considered to have genetic etiology
        B:-Hereditary chronic pancreatitis has 40 fold higher risk of pancreatic cancer
        C:-Patients with burnt out disease do not experience pain
        D:-Pancreatic function tests are essential for prevention and management of exocrine insufficiency
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-A 45 year old male presents with fever and pain abdomen. Ultrasound shows gall stones with dilated CBD and intrahepatic biliary radicles and a stone at the lower end of CBD. LFT is as follows : T. Bilirubin 5.6 mg/dL, AST 126 IU/L, ALT 119 IU/L, ALP 310 IU/L, GGT 125 IU/L, Albumin 2.3 g/dL. CBC shows : Hb 11.8 gm/dL, TLC 18000 cells/dL, Platelets 110000 cells/dL. On examination : patient is icteric and febrile, Pulse rate 106/min, BP : 92/50 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 22/min. All are next immediate acceptable steps in management except :
        A:-Admission, hydration and broad spectrum antibiotics
        B:-ERCP and stone clearance
        C:-ERCP and stenting
        D:-Oxygenation and inotropic support to keep MAP > 65 mm Hg
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question57:-Cholecystectomy is recommended in the following for asymptomatic gall stones:
        A:-Children with sickle cell anemia
        B:-Diabetes mellitus
        C:-Patients undergoing cardiac transplant
        D:-Patients undergoing bariatric surgery
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question58:-False about surgical management of Crohn's disease is
        A:-Kono-S anastomosis is proposed to reduce long-term stricture
        B:-Mesenteric resection might be associated with lower recurrence
        C:-Histopathological, and not gross, negative margin is associated with lower recurrence
        D:-Type of anastomosis (end-to-end versus side-to-side) is not conclusively found to be proven superior to one over other
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question59:-True statement about surgical management of ulcerative colitis is
        A:-Total proctocolectomy and end ileostomy is preferred in emergency setting as first stage.
        B:-Total abdominal colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis is an alternative option in young women to preserve fecundity.
        C:-Total abdominal colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis is not an option in patients with poor anal sphincter function.
        D:-As far as surgical option is concerned, indeterminate colitis should be treated like Crohn's and not ulcerative colitis.
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-False statement about the risk/etiology of pouchitis is
        A:-Consistent association with backwash ileitis
        B:-Abnormal mucosal immune response
        C:-Altered mucosal bacteria
        D:-A recurrent form of ulcerative colitis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-ESPAC-4 trial compared the outcomes between
        A:-Adjuvant Gemcitabine vs 5-FU
        B:-Adjuvant Gemicitabine vs Gemcitabine plus Capecitabine
        C:-Neoadjuvant Gemcitabine vs Adjuvant Gemcitabine
        D:-Adjuvant Gemcitabine vs Radiotherapy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question62:-Staging laparoscopy in pancreatic cancer is indicated in all the below situations except:
        A:-CA19-9 > 35 U/ml
        B:-Body and tail tumours
        C:-Large tumours > 3cm
        D:-Borderline resectable tumours
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-A 60 year old male presents with fever, jaundice and weight loss. Imaging reveals a pancreatic mass encasing PV-SMS junction. SMA is free. CBD and pancreatic duct are dilated. He is newly diagnosed diabetic with HbA 1c of 10.1. LFT shows T. Bilirubin 18.6 mg/dL, AST 156 IU/L, ALT 144 IU/L, ALP 1060 IU/L, GGT 525 IU/L, Albumin 3.1 g/dL. All are indications for biliary drainage in this patient except :
        A:-Need for neo-adjuvant therapy
        C:-Bilirubin > 10 mg/dL
        D:-Need for blood sugar control
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question64:-False statement about cervical and intrathoracic anastomosis after esophagectomy in patients with carcinoma esophagus
        A:-Cervical anastomosis is associated with lower recurrence rate
        B:-Intrathoracis anastomosis is associated with lower anastomotic leak rate
        C:-Cervical anastomosis is associated with higher recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
        D:-Cervical anastomosis is associated with a lesser morbidity after anastomotic leak
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-The most effective perioperative chemotherapy is good-risk patients with gastric cancer is
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question66:-False statement about post gastectomy syndrome is
        A:-Afferent loop syndrome is more common after Roux-en-Y reconstruction than after Billroth's II reconstruction
        B:-Jejunal intussusception after Billroth's II reconstruction is a rare cause of gastric outlet obstruction
        C:-Unlike early dumping, late dumping is due to hypoglycemia after postprandial insulin peak
        D:-Although, not accepted universally, few trials showed that ursodeoxycholic acid can reduce formation of gallstones in these patients
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-A 67 year old male presented with pain abdomen. On evaluation, he was found to have a large FDG avid (SUVmax- 3.4) heterogeneous density arterial phase hyperenhancing mass measuring 6.2×6.9×6.1 cm involving segments II andIII of left lobe of liver. A non-enhancing hypodense scar was seen within the lesion. Rest of liver appeared normal. No other significant findings on PET CT. He was also found to be HBcAb positive, DNA 335 copies/ml. UGIE did not show varices. CBC: Hb 12.6 gm/dL, TLC 7800 cells/dL, Platelets: 201000 cells/dL. LFT: T. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL, AST 86 IU/L, ALT 74 IU/L, ALP 110 IU/L, GGT 35 IU/L, Albumin 3.8 g/dL. Tumour markers were as follows: PIVKA-II: 21516 mAU/ml, AFP : 35.5 ng/ml. What is the best treatment option for this patient ?
        A:-Antivirals + Staging laparoscopy followed by left hepatectomy
        B:-Antivirals + Liver transplant
        C:-Antivirals + TACE
        D:-Antivirals + Sorafenib
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question68:-A 16 month old baby is brought with an abdominal lump. Further imaging reveals a well demarcated tumour without capsule occupying segments V, and VIII. There is another small nodule in segment IV. Portal veins are free. MHV is involved by the tumour. AFP levels 300000 ng/ml. Stage the disease
        A:-PRETEXT II C0 E0 F0 H0 M1 N0 P0 V1
        B:-PRETEXT III C0 E0 F1 H0 M0 N0 P0 V1
        C:-PRETEXT II C0 E1 F0 H0 M0 N0 P0 V1
        D:-PRETEXT IV C0 E1 F0 H0 M0 N0 P0 V1
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Risk factors for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma include all except
        B:-Primary sclerosing cholangitis
        C:-Hepatitis C
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question70:-All the following are implicated in colonic carcinogenesis except
        A:-Post cholecystectomy status
        C:-Low fibre diet
        D:-Calcium supplements
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-All are components of intensive surveillance after the treatment of colon cancer stage II and III except
        A:-Regular clinical assessment
        B:-Faecal occult blood 6 monthly
        C:-Serum CEA every 4 monthly
        D:-Annual CT scan for three years at least
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question72:-False statement about genetic susceptible colon cancer is
        A:-Lynch syndrome is found in 1-5% of all colon cancer
        B:-Microsatellite instability is associated with HNPCC syndrome
        C:-Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome is associated with APC mutation
        D:-MUTYH-associated polyposis is an autosomal dominant, and relatively less common hereditary colonic cancer
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-Which of these are incorrectly matched ?
        A:-Insulinoma: Impaired consciousness, seizures, personality changes, weight gain
        B:-VIPoma: Watery diarrhea, achlorhydria, hypokalemia, acidosis
        C:-Somatostatinoma: Steatorrhea, gall stones, hypoglycemia, weight gain
        D:-Glucagonoma: Diabetes, dermatitis, hypoaminoacidemia, venous thrombosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-A 35 year old male presents with anemia. UGI endoscopy reveals a bulge in the posterior wall 4×4 cm in size with small central ulcer. CT shows a solid, smoothly contoured mass that enhances brightly arising from greater curvature ~6×6 cm. Slpeen and pancreas is free. Next step in management is:
        A:-Wedge resection of stomatch with mass
        B:-Subtotal gastrectomy with lymphadenectomy
        C:-UGIE with biopsy
        D:-EUS guided biopsy
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question75:-Which of the following hereditary conditions has the highest frequency of Pancreatic NET ?
        C:-Tuberous Sclerosis
        D:-MEN 1
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-In Thromboelastograph (TEG) clot strength is indicated by
        A:-R time
        B:-Alpha angle
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question77:-Regarding ROTEM in coagulation monitoring which of the following is correct ?
        A:-It will generate five assays
        B:-Ex-TEM for intrinsic pathway
        C:-Hep-TEM will assess hepatic activity
        D:-In-TEM for extrinsic pathway
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question78:-All of the following are Vitamin K dependent factors except
        A:-Factor II
        B:-Factor V
        C:-Protein C
        D:-Factor X
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except
        A:-Factor VIII
        B:-Factor IX
        D:-Von Willibrands factor
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question80:-Which of the following is the least likely complication of massive blood transfusion ?
        B:-Citrate toxicity
        D:-Metabolic acidosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question81:-CONSORT statement provides guidance for reporting
        A:-Cohort study
        B:-Randomised controlled trials
        C:-Meta analysis
        D:-Case report
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-IMRAD structure of writing scientific paper include all except
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-Ghost authorship is
        A:-Failing to name, someone who has made significant contribution
        B:-Naming someone who has not contributed for the article
        C:-Listing the name as last author
        D:-Failure to list someone as first author
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question84:-True about cohort studies are all except
        A:-Easy and less expensive
        B:-Incidents can be measured
        C:-Multiple simultaneous outcomes can be assessed
        D:-Blinding is possible
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question85:-True about meta analysis are all except
        A:-Includes only experimental studies
        B:-Allows result to be generalised to a larger population
        C:-Identified public bias
        D:-Heterogeneity of studies can limit the quality
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question86:-Which of the following indicates the probability that observe difference between groups might be due to chance alone ?
        A:-p value
        B:-type 1 error
        C:-type 2 error
        D:-confidence interval
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question87:-Fundamental principles of medical ethics are all the following except
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-Identify the type of research question if the Objective of study is todetermine the effect of tobacco smoking in the management of pain in chronic pancreatitis
        A:-Descriptive research question
        B:-Hypothetical research question
        C:-Analytical research question
        D:-Experimental research question
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question89:-In the National Library of Medicine (NLM) MeSH means
        A:-Medical Services Heading
        B:-Medical Subject Head
        C:-Medical Subject Helpline
        D:-Medicine Services Helpline
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-Which of the following is useful to measure the burden or magnitude of a disease or risk factor ?
        A:-Case control study
        B:-Cross-sectional study
        C:-Case report
        D:-Case series
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question91:-Which face of a clinical trial is referred to as post marketing surveillance ?
        A:-Phase 1
        B:-Phase 2
        C:-Phase 3
        D:-Phase 4
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-Any process that tends to produce results that depart systematically from true values in a research study is known as
        C:-Random error
        D:-Effect modification
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-The method which can be used to alleviate compounding during data analysis in an epidemiological study
        A:-Multivariate analysis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-Which of the following incorrect about publishing research finding ?
        A:-Publication often helps in carrier progression and academic promotion
        B:-It is a way to communicate research findings with the peer groups
        C:-Conflicts of interest can be suppressed as it has implication in study findings
        D:-It identifies research gaps
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question95:-Altering the original data to obtain a statistically significant result by the researcher is known as
        D:-Ghost writing
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-Which of the following organisations directly deals with publication ethics ?
        A:-Indian Medical Association
        B:-Committee on Publication Ethics (COPE)
        D:-Joint National Committee (JNC)
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question97:-Which section of a protocol describes the need to maintain anonymity of study participants while sharing data to others ?
        A:-Human subject protection
        B:-Data collection methods
        C:-Data analysis plan
        D:-Conflict of interest
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question98:-Which of the following is a component of concept paper ?
        B:-Objective and methods
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-Which of the following is not part of guidelines for responsible conduct research ?
        D:-Respect for intellectual property
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-A study participant is forced by the investigator to continue in a trial against his will is violation of
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

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