Assistant Professor in Neurosurgery Question Paper and Answer Key

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 38/2024/OL
Category Code: 337/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Neurosurgery
Date of Test 06-04-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-Which of the following syndromes are NOT associated with lesions of the occipital lobe?
        A:-Balint's syndrome
        B:-Anton's syndrome
        C:-Cortical blindness
        D:-Autotopagnosia
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question2:-Aura's in epilepsy is associated with which anatomical structure
        A:-Uncus
        B:-Amygdala
        C:-Anterior hippocampus
        D:-Parahippocampus
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-Which of the following is not a synonym for "locked in state"?
        A:-Pseudocoma
        B:-Ventral pontine syndrome
        C:-De-efferented state
        D:-Alpha Coma
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question4:-Which of the following is TRUE for Chenye Stokes respiration?
        A:-Seen in diffuse forebrain lesions
        B:-Is characterized by prolonged pause at the end of respiration
        C:-Seen in medullary lesions
        D:-May be found in basilar artery occlusion
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question5:-Which of the following is NOT true for cerebral blood flow?
        A:-Is about 100 ml/100 gms of brain tissue
        B:-Is more for grey matter
        C:-Is regulated by mostly 3 factors, which include systemic blood pressure, the concentration of CO2, and hydrogen ions in arterial blood
        D:-Is maintained over a wide range of mean arterial blood pressure (50-160 mmHg)
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question6:-The ICP waveform under physiological conditions has one of the following sentences TRUE:
        A:-Three peaks are recognizable-percussion wave, tidal wave, and dicrotic notch
        B:-Plateau waves or A waves are also occasionally seen
        C:-Occasionally, the amplitude of tidal wave may exceed the percussion wave
        D:-Physiological waves forms may occasionally be more than 20 mmHg but always below 50 mmHg
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question7:-The recurrent artery of Heubner's commonly arises from
        A:-A1
        B:-A2
        C:-Anterior communicating artery
        D:-Internal carotid just proximal to bifurcation
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-Which of the following about Brain is NOT true?
        A:-2% body weight
        B:-Receives 20% cardiac output
        C:-Has 20% of oxygen consumption
        D:-Delivers 20% of body's toxic wastes
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question9:-Which are the values of blood flow in the brain below which, the idling neurons start dying?
        A:-20-25 mL/100g/min
        B:-10-20 mL/100g/min
        C:-5-10 mL/100g/min
        D:-<5 mL/100g/min
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question10:-Which of the following hormones is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary?
        A:-Corticotropin-releasing hormone
        B:-Adrenocorticotropin releasing hormone
        C:-Thyroid-stimulating hormone
        D:-Follicle-stimulating hormone
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-A 65-year-old male presented with sudden onset hemiplegia on the left side. CT scan showed a moderate-sized infarct over the right parietal lobe. Clinical examination revealed that he was conscious, alert and oriented, speech was preserved. However, he would blow his cheeks on being asked to show his teeth. What do you think he has?
        A:-Oral apraxia
        B:-Limb kinetic apraxia
        C:-Anosognosia
        D:-Ideational apraxia
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question12:-A 60-year-old male is referred to you from Neurology for placement of deep brain stimulation for idiopathic Parkinson's disease. He also has issues with word fluency and has depression. What target would you prefer?
        A:-Subthalamic nucleus
        B:-Globus Pallidus Pars Interna
        C:-Ventral intermediate nucleus
        D:-Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question13:-Which of the cranial nerves does NOT decussate to the opposite side (either partially or completely)?
        A:-Optic nerve
        B:-IV nerve
        C:-IIIrd nerve
        D:-VIth nerve
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-A 45-year-old male presented with progressive myelopathy of all four limbs. He does not have any sensory loss. MRI spine revealed a mild prolapsed disc at the C3/4 level. On examination, you find fasciculations and atrophy of the upper limbs. Power in all limbs is 4+/5. Plantars are bilaterally extensor. The Patient has been referred to you for surgery. What will be your next plan of action?
        A:-Plan for discectomy and single-level fusion
        B:-Examine the tongue for fasciculations and also get complete nerve conduction studies done
        C:-Follow up conservatively
        D:-Plan corpectomy with instrumented fusion given severe myelopathy
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question15:-Which of the following radiological features in NOT generally true for Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?
        A:-Increased Evan's Index < 0.3
        B:-Upward bowing of corpus callosum
        C:-Dilated sylvian fissures and insular cisterns
        D:-Absence of trans ependymal edema (periventricular hypodensity)
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-Which of the following are NOT true regarding visual affection in involvement of visual pathways?
        A:-Carniopharyngiomas generally start with lower bi-temporal quadrantic field cuts
        B:-Pituitary adenomas usually start with upper bi-temporal quadranti field cuts
        C:-The commonest fields cuts following a temporal lobectomy is contralateral lower quadrantopia
        D:-Occipital lesion produces congruous field cuts
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question17:-Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of frontal lobar dysfunction?
        A:-Preservation
        B:-Loss of smell
        C:-Broaca's aphasia
        D:-Recent memory loss
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question18:-Which of the following is NOT a feature of nuclear IIIrd nerve paresis?
        A:-Bilateral ptosis
        B:-Unilateral ptosis with bilateral superior rectus paresis
        C:-Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
        D:-Unilateral complete IIIrd paresis with opposite ptosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question19:-A patient sustains a minor head injury, following which he starts complaining of diplopia especially when climbing down the stairs. Examination of the ocular movements are normal except for a mild lag of one when looking down. CT scan is normal. What would you do next?
        A:-The 3-step test for IVth carnial nerve palsy
        B:-Fundus examination
        C:-Test for hearing
        D:-Schirmer's test
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question20:-Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of instrinsic brain stem lesion?
        A:-Ipsilateral IIIrd with contralateral paresis
        B:-Involvement of VI and VII nerve paresis together
        C:-Corticospinal with posterior column involvement
        D:-Bilateral ptosis with corticospinal
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-For the diagnosis of post operative diabetes insipidus after carniopharygioma resection, which of the following diagnostic criterion is incorrect?
        A:-Urine output >2ml/kg/hour
        B:-Serum Sodium >145mEq/L
        C:-Plasma Osmolarity >300 mOsm/kg
        D:-Hypotonic urine (sp.gravity<1.010)
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question22:-As per current guidelines, children with Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) should have cerebral perfusion pressure maintained at what minimum ideal level?
        A:-40 mm of Hg
        B:-30 mm of Hg
        C:-60 mm of Hg
        D:-70 mm of Hg
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question23:-Which of the following is a disorder of neuronal migration?
        A:-Focal cortical dysplasia
        B:-Lissencephaly
        C:-Hemimegalencephaly
        D:-Hamartoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-Dandy Walker malformation does not include
        A:-Hydrocephalus
        B:-Vermian hypoplasia
        C:-Large Posterior fossa
        D:-Low lying torcula
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question25:-Von Hippel Lindau disease does not include the following
        A:-Epididymal cyst
        B:-Retinal angioma
        C:-Spinal haemangioblastoma
        D:-Renal angiomyoliopoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question26:-True about dermoid cyst are all of the following except,
        A:-Includes endodermal elements
        B:-Can manifest in adulthood
        C:-Most common location is the spine
        D:-May be T1 hyper on MRI
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Neuroepithelial cysts occur due to a defect in which stage of embryogenesis
        A:-Early gastrulation
        B:-Primary neurulation
        C:-Secondary neurulation
        D:-Both primary and secondary neurulation
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question28:-Closed neural tube defects have an association with,
        A:-Localized hypertrichosis
        B:-Depigmentation
        C:-Cutaneous haemangioma
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-Lhermitte Duclos disease has an association with all except,
        A:-Cowden syndrome
        B:-Hemimegalencephaly
        C:-Hydromyelia
        D:-Aqueductal stenosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question30:-The angiogram of Suzuki Stage 1 of Moya-Moya disease shows
        A:-Narrowing of carotid fork
        B:-Initiation of 'Moya-Moya' vessels
        C:-Minimisation of 'Moya-Moya' vessels
        D:-Disappearance of 'Moya-Moya' vessels
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question31:-Hounsfield unit for grey matter of the brain is
        A:-30-40 HU
        B:-50-60 HU
        C:--20 to -30 HU
        D:-100-120 HU
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question32:-Susceptibility Weighted Images (SWI) in MRI are useful in the diagnosis of
        A:-Radiation necrosis
        B:-Cerebral microbleeds
        C:-Neurovacular conflict
        D:-Arachnoid cysts
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question33:-The Hunter's angle in MR-spectroscopy in a normal MRI brain is
        A:-35 degrees
        B:-45 degrees
        C:-65 degrees
        D:-90 degrees
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question34:-CISS-3D MRI sequences would be useful for the evaluation of
        A:-CSF rhinorrhoea
        B:-Trigeminal neuralgia
        C:-Small colloid cysts
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-Trigonocephaly is characterised by premature fusion of which suture?
        A:-Metopic
        B:-Sagittal
        C:-Coronal
        D:-Lambdoid
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Cerebral vasculitis due to fungal infections may occur due to
        A:-Coccidiomycosis
        B:-Mucormycosis
        C:-Histoplasmosis
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-The vesicular stage of Neurocysticercosis is seen radiologically after the parasite is lodged in the brain for
        A:-2-3 months
        B:-3-5 months
        C:-1 month
        D:-6-8 months
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-Which cytokine is critical in the development of CNS TB?
        A:-TNF-
        B:-VEGF
        C:-IL-10
        D:-EGF
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question39:-CNS infection commonly associated with AIDS includes all except,
        A:-Neurocysticercosis
        B:-Toxoplasmosis
        C:-Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
        D:-Cryptococcal meningitis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question40:-Late cerebritis stage of a brain abscess usually lasts from
        A:-4-10 days
        B:-3-5 days
        C:-10-15 days
        D:-14-18 days
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-Mycotic aneurysms in the brain are most commonly associated with
        A:-Viridans streptococci
        B:-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
        C:-Mucormycosis
        D:-Aspergillosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question42:-Tethered cord is usually associated with
        A:-Thickened filum terminale
        B:-Bony spur
        C:-Sacral dysgenesis
        D:-Dorsal lipoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question43:-Artery of Percheron territory infarcts are,
        A:-Usually bilateral
        B:-Involve pontomedullary junction
        C:-Always unilateral
        D:-Commonly due to vasculitis
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question44:-Areas with absent blood brain barrier include all except,
        A:-Pineal
        B:-Area postrema
        C:-Band of Giacomini
        D:-Posterior pituitary
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question45:-As per the Bouthiller classification, the C4 segment of the internal carotid artery is
        A:-Clinoidal segment
        B:-Communicating segment
        C:-Cavernous segment
        D:-Laceral segment
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-The craniometric measure that helps to assess the volume of the posterior fossa is
        A:-McRae line
        B:-Chamberlain line
        C:-Welcher's angle
        D:-Klaus index
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question47:-Tonsillar descent in Chiari malformation is measured with reference to an imaginary line connecting,
        A:-Opisthion to Basion
        B:-Hard palate to Basion
        C:-Nasion to Basion
        D:-Opisthion to Gnathion
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question48:-NF-1 associated lesions include all except,
        A:-Sphenoid dysplasia
        B:-Iris hamartomas
        C:-Axillary freckling
        D:-Cutaneous hamartoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question49:-Tuberous Sclerosis is not usually associated with
        A:-Leptomeningeal angiomatosis
        B:-Chronic epilepsy
        C:-Sub-ependymal giant cell astrocytoma
        D:-Thalamic tubers
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question50:-Lesions which are T1 hyper on MRI include all except
        A:-Fat
        B:-Calcium
        C:-Proteinaceous fluids
        D:-Melanin
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-A 55 year old man brought to the Trauma care department following a road traffic accident. On arrival he is able to open his eyes to pain, incomprehensible verbal response and localizing to painful stimulus. His GCS score is
        A:-E3 V3 M5
        B:-E2 V2 M4
        C:-E2 V2 M5
        D:-E2 V3 M5
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-Which of the following is a single major criteria for indication of non contrast head CT scan in patients with minor head injury?
        A:-Contusion of the skull
        B:-GCS score <15
        C:-Post traumatic amnesia of 2 to <4 hours
        D:-Loss of consciousness
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question53:-Which of the following are true in case of a/c Epidural Hematoma (EDH)?
i.     Most EDH result from arterial bleeding from a branch of the middle meningeal artery
ii.    Nearby 10% of EDH are caused by venous bleeding
iii.   Usually venous EDH expand aggressively
iv.   Presence of low density areas within an EDH in imaging is associated with poor prognosis
        A:-i, ii
        B:-i, ii, iii
        C:-i, ii, iii, iv
        D:-i, ii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question54:-Which of the following are true regarding the management of hypertension in traumatic brain injury?
i.     It is unwise to reduce systemic blood pressure in patients with untreated intracranial mass lesion.
ii.    Vasodialating anti hypertensive drugs hydralazine, nicardipine and nitroprusside consistently increase ICP
iii.   Sympathomimetic - blocking anti hypertensive drugs such as beta blocking agents are preferred
iv.   Better avoid centrally acting Alpha-receptor agonists
        A:-i, ii, iii
        B:-ii, iii, iv
        C:-i, ii, iv
        D:-ii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question55:-The third clinical Randomization of an antifibrinolytic in significant head injury (CRASH-3) trial data suggested
i.     Early treatment with tranexamic acid within 3 hours of injury is more effective than standard treatment time (within 8 hours) but did not reach statistical significance
ii.    Methyl prednisolone was recommended by the study group for early TBI management
iii.   Tnanexamic acid was recommended by the study group as a treatment option early in TBI management
iv.   Methyl prednisolne and Tranexamic acid are not useful in TBI management
        A:-i, ii
        B:-i, ii, iii
        C:-i, iii
        D:-iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question56:-Indications for surgery in a case of acute subdural hematoma include
i.     Thickness of hematoma more than 10 mm
ii.    Midline shift more than 5 mm regardless of the patients GCS score
iii.   Post traumatic seizure and more than 3 episodes of vomiting
iv.   ICP more than 20 mm of Hg with anisocoria
        A:-i, ii, iii
        B:-ii, iii, iv
        C:-i, ii, iv
        D:-i, iii,iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question57:-Which of the following are accepted criteria for surgical treatment of depressed skull fracture?
i.     Fracture over dural sinus without compromising venous drainage
ii.    Compound fractures with depression greater than the thickness of the skull
iii.   Simple or compound fractures if associated with significant cosmetic defect
iv.   Depressed fracture involving frontal sinus and causing CSF leak
        A:-i, ii, iii
        B:-ii, iii, iv
        C:-i, iii, iv
        D:-i, ii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question58:-Anterior odontoid screw fixation can be used for acute type II and type III odontoid fracture. Contra indication for the procedure are all except
        A:-Disruption of transverse ligament
        B:-Odontoid fracture type II B
        C:-Significant comminution of Body
        D:-Inability to reduce the fracture
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question59:-Which of the following are true regarding Hangman's fracture?
i.     Bilateral fracture through pars interarticularis of vertebra
ii.    Traumatic subluxation of over
iii.   Most often due to hyperflexian and axial rotation
iv.   Usually stable with no neurological deficit.
        A:-i, ii, iv
        B:-i, ii, iii
        C:-ii, iii, iv
        D:-i, iii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question60:-In Maroon and Bailes classification of athletic spinal injuries
        A:-Type I spinal injuries consist of radiologic abnormalities without Neurological deficit
        B:-Type II injuries otherwise called spinal concussion, are transient in nature and radiographically occult
        C:-Type III spinal injuries have demonstrable radiographic abnormalities with neurological deficit
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question61:-Which of the following is not true regarding Glioblastoma?
        A:-Glioblastoma isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) wild type is known as Secondary or progressive glioblastoma
        B:-Glioblastoma IDH mutant has a higher P53 mutation frequency
        C:-IDH wild type is the most common glioblastoma
        D:-5 to 10% of glioblastoma IDH mutant arise from grade II or III tumors
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question62:-Which of the following is not true regarding Anti-Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) Bevacizumab?
        A:-It reduces the peritumoral vasogenic oedema
        B:-It has no role in the management of radiation induced necrosis
        C:-It increases progression free survival but fail to increase overall survival
        D:-Hypertension is one of the most commonly seen side effects
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-The current standard of care for Brain Metastases include all except
        A:-Targeted Molecular Therapy
        B:-Stereotactic Radio Surgery (SRS)
        C:-Surgical Excision
        D:-Whole-Brain Radio therapy
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question64:-A 45 yrs old female patient, known case of Von Hippel - Lindav disease presented with headache and gait ataxia. MRI showed solid and cystic lesion with perilesional oedema. Intra operatively the lesion appears bright red and large abnormal veins draining the tumour. The tumour is well encapsulated with intra tumoral cysts. The probable diagnosis is
        A:-AVM
        B:-Tuberculoma
        C:-Hemangioblastoma
        D:-High grade Glioma
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-Which of the following is not true in patients with Brain Metastases?
        A:-Lung cancer is the most common underlying cause of brain metastases
        B:-Small cell lung cancer have 80% chance of brain metastases since 2 years from diagnoses
        C:-Mutations in the Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) oncogene have been identified as a prognostic risk factor for brain metastases both for squamous and non squamous histology
        D:-Brain metastases from both small cell and non small cell lung cancer have higher incidence in male compared with female
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-Which of the following is true regarding the pathology of meningioma?
i.     The cell of origin of all meningioma is believed to be the Arachnoid cap cell
ii.    Meningioma en plaque is more common in the area of parietal bone
iii.   Meningiothelial meningioma microscopially showed minearlized whorls containing calcium apatite and collagen are called psammoma bodies
iv.   Common distinguishing feature in meningioma is the presence of Orphan Annie's eye nuclei which is taregt like nuclei with central clearing and peripheral
margination of the chromatin
        A:-i, iii, iv
        B:-i, ii, iii
        C:-ii, iii, iv
        D:-i, ii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-Which is not true in Solitary Fibrous Tumour/Hemangiopericytoma (SFT/HPC), a common sub type of intracranial sarcoma?
        A:-SFT/HPC characterised by two distinct histologic sub types that share a common genetic feature namely NAB 2-STAT 6 fusion gene
        B:-SFT/HPC represents the most common non meningiothelial mesenchyrnal CNS tumour
        C:-Primary CNS SFT/HPC can metastasize to lungs, liver and bone
        D:-SFT/HPC tumours that exhibits SFT phenotype has a high rate of recurrence following resection
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-What is the earliest and most frequent symptom of vestibular schwanoma?
        A:-Facial palsy
        B:-Unilateral sensorineurel hearing loss
        C:-Tinnitus
        D:-Headache
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Regarding pharmacotherapy of Acromegaly all of the following are true except
        A:-Long acting formulations of somatostain analogues octreotide and lanreotide are commonly used for primary treatment
        B:-Reduction in tumour size is observed in more than half of the patients
        C:-Arthropathy is more refractory to pharmacotherapy
        D:-Pharmacotherapy resolves headache soft tissue swelling, parasthesia and hyperhydrosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question70:-Which of the following are true in chordoma and chondrosarcoma?
i.     Methotrexate at a dose of 3.5-8 g/ is effective in the treatment of chordoma and chondrosarcoma
ii.    Surgical enblock resesction with negative margin is the mainstay of treatment
iii.   High dose radiation (>5 Gy) is recommeded as adjuvant therapy or primary therapy in case of unresectable lesion
iv.   Medium overall survival among all spinal chondrosarcoma is 6.9 years
        A:-i, ii, iii
        B:-i,ii, iv
        C:-ii, iii, iv
        D:-i, iii, iv
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question71:-A 50 year old male was diagnosed to have SAH following rupture of A-com aneurysm, underwent carniotomy and clipping, following which he developed hemiparaesis with facial and brachial predominance. The artery most likely to be involved is
        A:-Fronto polar Artery
        B:-Calloso marginal Artery
        C:-Recurrent Artery of Heubner
        D:-Posterior Cerebral Artery
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question72:-Regarding Mycotic aneurysms. All are true EXCEPT
        A:-Associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis
        B:-Most commonly seen in proximal MCA-M1 segment
        C:-Comprise about 4% of intracranial aneurysms
        D:-Atleast 25% have or develop multiple aneurysms
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question73:-Lateral medullary syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT
        A:-May be seen in vertebral artery occlusion
        B:-Ipsilateral Horners syndrome
        C:-Impaired pain and temperature sensation in ipsilateral half of the body
        D:-Impaired sensations over ipsilateral face
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-All the following are true of moyamoya disease EXCEPT
        A:-Majority of adults with this disease presents with ischemia
        B:-The age of onset displays a bimodal distribution
        C:-Associated with Down's syndrome and neurofibromatosis
        D:-It involves progressive stenosis of supraclinoid ICA and concomitant collateral formation
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question75:-CREST trial compares
        A:-Clipping Vs Coiling for posterior circulation aneurysms
        B:-Craniotomy and Surgery Vs SRS for intracranial AVMs
        C:-Conservative Vs decompressive craniectomy for MCA infarct
        D:-Carotid endarterectomy Vs stending for carotid stenosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-MRI scan of a patient with right Capsulo ganglionic haematoma showed a lesion which is hyper intense on T1 and hyper intense on T2. What could be the stage of haematoma?
        A:-Acute
        B:-Early sub acute
        C:-Late sub acute
        D:-Chronic
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question77:-Which of the following was described for the surgical exposure of the intra cavernous ICA for the treatment of carotico-cavernous fistula?
        A:-Kawase's triangle
        B:-Glasscock's triangle
        C:-Inferomedial Paraclival triangle
        D:-Parkinson's triangle
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-Which of the following is caused by vascular loop compression?
        A:-Blepharospasm
        B:-Facial myokymia
        C:-Bell's palsy
        D:-Hemifacial spasm
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question79:-The location of blood in PNSAH is typically
        A:-Pre pontine
        B:-Chiasmatic
        C:-Inter hemispheric
        D:-Sylvian
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question80:-Which of the following is FALSE regarding Carotico-Cavernous Fistula?
        A:-Type A: Direct high-flow shunts between the internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus
        B:-Type B: Indirect, low flow from meningeal branches of the Internal Carotid Artery (ICA)
        C:-Type C: Direct high flow between cavernous sinus and External Carotid Artery (ECA)
        D:-Type D: Indirect, from meningeal branches of both the ICA and ECA
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question81:-Which of the following is a feature of Neurogenic shock?
        A:-Increased arteriolar tone
        B:-Increased peripheral vascular resistance
        C:-Hypertension
        D:-Bradycardia
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-During a thalamotomy for Parkinson tremor, the patient complaints of paraesthesias of fingertips and mouth. This could be due to the electrode being too
        A:-Anterior to the target
        B:-Posterior to the target
        C:-Medial to the target
        D:-Lateral to the target
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question83:-Which of the following is often associated with chronic temporal lobe epilepsy?
        A:-Pilocytic astrocytoma
        B:-Ganglioglioma
        C:-DNET
        D:-Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-Regarding fMRI, which is FALSE
        A:-The BOLD signal used in fMRI represents the ratio of oxyhemoglobin concentration to deoxyhemoglobin concentration
        B:-There is no direct relationship between BOLD intensity and cortical eloquence
        C:-Areas that do not surpass the chosen threshold are functionally inert
        D:-High BOLD signal identifies an area with increased neuronal activity as a result of localized hyperfusion
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-Diagnostic criteria for diabetes incipidus following pituitary surgery includes ALL EXCEPT
        A:-Urine output >3mL/kg/hr
        B:-Plasma osmolarity >300 mOsm/kg
        C:-Urine Osmolarity <300 mOsm/kg
        D:-Urine specific gravity >1.010
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question86:-Which of the following syndrome is unlikely to improve in Parkinson's disease after DBS?
        A:-Dyskinesias
        B:-Rigidity
        C:-Postural instability and "on" - period gait freezing
        D:-Bradykinesia and "off" - period gait freezing
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-Which of the following anaesthetic agent decreases the intracranial pressure?
        A:-Isoflurane
        B:-Enflurane
        C:-Thiopental
        D:-Halothane
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question88:-The following complications can occur in patients in ICU on Total Parental Nutrition EXCEPT
        A:-Calculous cholecystitis
        B:-Hypercapnoea
        C:-Increased chance of infection
        D:-Impaired oxygenation
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-Biot's breathing suggests the lesion in
        A:-Diencephalon
        B:-Midbrain
        C:-Medulla
        D:-Pons
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question90:-All are true regarding intracranial pressure monitoring EXCEPT
        A:-with fluid coupled devices, higher rates of obstruction occur at ICPs > 50 mm Hg
        B:-overall incidence of haemorrhage is 1.4% for all devices
        C:-pressure gradients between Right and Left sides and supra-infra compartments may be present
        D:-Frequent irrigation of tubing prevent the rate of infection
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question91:-A 60 year old male with progressive cervical spondylotic myelopathy comes to OPD with spasticity involving all four limbs and is able to move with the support of another person only. His Nurick's grade is
        A:-Grade 5
        B:-Grade 2
        C:-Grade 3
        D:-Grade 4
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-The changes occurring in degenerated intervertebral discs include ALL EXCEPT
        A:-decrease in the synthesis of proteoglycans such as aggrecan
        B:-increase in enzymes like including matrix metalloproteinases
        C:-Type I collagen within the nucleus pulposus is replaced with type II collagen
        D:-Loss of elastin in annulus fibrosus
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question93:-Which of the following trials compared surgical decompression of central cord syndrome with conservative management?
        A:-STASCIS
        B:-COSMIC
        C:-NASCIS III
        D:-CRASH
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question94:-Regarding Torg-Pavlov ratio all are true EXCEPT
        A:-originally used to identify football players at risk for acute spinal cord injury
        B:-the normal Torg-Pavlov ratio is 2
        C:-in congenital cervical stenosis, it is 0.8 or less
        D:-ratio between the diameter of the sagittal canal and the diameter of the vertebral body at the same level
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-In Meyerding classification, Grade 5 refers to
        A:-Spondyloptosis
        B:-Spondylolysis without any slip
        C:-A slip of 76% to 100%
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question96:-Which of the following is FALSE?
        A:-DISH is charaterised by ossification of spinal ligaments with a predilection for the anterior longitudinal ligament
        B:-DISH primarily affects the thoracic spine with sparing of sacroiliac joint
        C:-In DISH the intervertebral disk space is narrowed with evidence of spondylodiskitis
        D:-Sacroiliitis is the hallmark of Akylosing Spondylitis because it tends to occur first
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-Which of the following combinations is NOT CORRECT?
        A:-McRae's line-basion to opisthion
        B:-Chamberlain's line-posterior hard palate to opisthion
        C:-Wackenheim's line-dorsum sellae to opisthion
        D:-McGregor's line-posterior margin of hard palate to most caudal point of occiput
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Which of the following formulas is correct in terms of the relationship of Pelvic Tilt(PT), Pelvic Incidence(PI) and Sacral Slope(SS)?
        A:-PT=PI+SS
        B:-PI=PT+SS
        C:-SS=PI+PT
        D:-PT=PI-SS
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-Cubital tunnel syndrome
        A:-Entrapment neuropathy due to anterior interosseous nerve entrapment at elbow
        B:-Median nerve entrapment between two heads of supinator
        C:-Ulnar nerve entrapment between two heads of FCU
        D:-Entrapment of posterior interosseous nerve at the cubital fossa
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-A patient with H/o road traffic accident came to OPD. O/E he is able to dorsiflex and invert his foot but unable to evert his foot. The most likely nerve damaged is
        A:-Deep peroneal nerve
        B:-Common peroneal nerve
        C:-Superficial Peroneal Nerve
        D:-Tibial nerve
        Correct Answer:- Option-C