Name of Post: Network Administrator
Department: Kerala Administrative Tribunal
Cat. No: 137/2020
Date of Test: 19.10.2022
Question Code: 98/2022 (A)
Medium of Question- English
1. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
(i) In vectored interrupt, the branch address is obtained from a register in the processor
(ii) Daisy chaining is used to assign priorities in attending the interrupt
(iii) During DMA, both the CPU and DMA controller can be the bus master at the same time
(iv) Interrupt latency is the period between occurrence of an interrupt and start of execution of the interrupt Service Routine
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: B
2. Which of the following statement is/are FALSE?
(i) Memory address space gives the PCI its plug and plays capability
(ii) PCI bus supports memory, I/O and configuration address space
(iii) PCI bridge provides a separate physical connection to the memory
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
3. Suppose a computer using direct mapped cache has 210 bytes of byte-addressable main memory and a cache of 32 blocks, where each cache block contains 16 bytes. How many blocks of main memory are there?
(A) 4²
(B) 5²
(C) 6²
(D) 7²
Correct Answer: C
4. Consider the following statements comparing static RAM with dynamic RAM:
(i) DRAM is costlier than SRAM
(ii) SRAM has shorter read and write cycle
(iii) SRAM use flip flop to store information whereas DRAM use capacitor to store information
(iv) DRAM contains less memory cells as compared to SRAM per unit area
Which of the above statements are false?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Correct Answer: D
5. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 12 2 bytes and can perform 1024 operations. An instruction involving 2 operands and one operator needs a maximum of
(A) 22
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 34
Correct Answer: D
6. A memory system has total of 16 memory chips, each with 12 address lines and 8 data lines.
The total size of the memory system is
(A) 64 KB
(B) 48 KB
(C) 32 KB
(D) 16 KB
Correct Answer:A
7. The multiplexing of address and data buses is used in microprocessor
(A) To reduce the memory access time
(B) To reduce the number of pins on IC
(C) To reduce the hardware complexity
(D) To reduce the processing time
Correct Answer: B
8. Ready pin of a microprocessor is used
(A) To indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive inputs
(B) To indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive outputs
(C) To introduce wait states
(D) To provide direct memory access
Correct Answer: C
9. The type of microcontroller which does not have program memory on the chip is known as
(A) External memory microcontroller
(B) Embedded memory microcontroller
(C) CISC
(D) RISC
Correct Answer: A
10. The protocol standards that have the primary function of transferring data between the host system and mass storage devices
(A) PCI
(B) SCSI
(C) USB
(D) SATA
Correct Answer: D
11. Which of the following is true?
(A) Process control block contains a boot strap program
(B) The entry of all the Process control block of the current processes is in Process Register
(C) Program control block represent each process in the operating system
(D) Process control block is a process type variable
Correct Answer: C
Question deleted
12. Which of the following instructions should be allowed in kernel and mode and not in user mode?
(i) Disable all interrupts
(ii) Read the time-of-day clock
(iii) Set the time-of-day clock
(iv) Change the memory map
(A) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Correct Answer: A
13. Four jobs to be executed on a single processor system arrive at time 0 in the order P1 , P2 ,P3 and P4 and their CPU burst time requirements are 5, 2, 7 and 1 ms respectively. The completion time of P1 under round robin scheduling with time quantum of 1 ms.
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
Correct Answer: B
14. The command that is used to remove executable permission from the user and assign read permission to the group and others for the file named ‘file 1’
(A) chmod u-x, go + r file1
(B) chmod g + x, uo + r file 1
(C) chmod g-x, go + r file 1
(D) chmod go + x, u-x file 1
Correct Answer: A
15. Which of the following is the function of curl command?
(A) To search a file for a particular pattern
(B) To trace the route an IP packet follows to an Internet host
(C) To transfer data using URL syntax
(D) To list the currently running process
Correct Answer: C
16. If the number of bits in the virtual address of a program is 8 and the page size is 16 bytes, the number of pages in virtual address space is
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64
Correct Answer: B
17. Virtualization layer that enables multiple operating systems to share a single hardware host
(A) VMA
(B) VMS
(C) VMR
(D) VMM
Correct Answer: D
18. At initialization, a java application needs to loads 25 libraries. Each library takes one disc access to load. The disc seek time to a random location is specified as 20 ms. The disc rotates at a rate of 3000 rpm. How long will it take to load all 25 libraries if they are loaded from random locations on the disc? (The time it takes to transmit data from a disc block once the head is positioned at the beginning of the block can be ignored.)
(A) 0.5 sec
(B) 0.75 sec
(C) 1 sec
(D) 1.5 sec
Correct Answer: B
19. Match the following
(A) (i): (b), (ii):c, (iii): d, (iv) :a
(B) (i): (b), (ii): a, (iii): d, (iv) :c
(C) (i): (c), (ii):d, (iii): a, (iv): b
(D) (i): c, (ii): a, (iii): b, (iv): d
Correct Answer: B
20. For the page reference string 2, 3, 0, 1, 5, 4, 0, 1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 4, 2, 3, 5 compute the number of page faults following a LRU page replacement policy with 3 memory frames (initially empty)
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
Correct Answer: C
21. Let R (a,b,c) and S (d,e,f,) be two relations in which d is the foreign key of S that refers to the primary key of R. Consider the following four operations on R and S
(i) Insert into R
(ii) Insert into S
(iii) Delete from R
(iv) Delete from S
Which of the following statements is true about the referential integrity constraint above?
(A) None of (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) can cause its violation
(B) All of (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) can cause its violation
(C) Both (i) and (iv) can cause its violation
(D) Both (ii) and (iii) can cause its violation
Correct Answer: D
22. Which of the following is false?
(A) Ensuring durability is the responsibility of recovery management component
(B) Ensuring Isolation is the responsibility of concurrency management
(C) Ensuring atomicity and consistency is the responsibility of recovery management component
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
23. SQL Server allows for Transact-SQL stored procedures, triggers, and batches to refer to tables that don’t exist at compile time. This ability is called
(A) Deferred Name Resolution
(B) Deferred Name Permissions
(C) Indeferred Name Resolution
(D) Indeferred Name Permissions
Correct Answer: A
24. Which-one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?
(A) BCNF is a stronger form of normalization than 3NF
(B) Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
(C) Lossless, dependency – preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
(D) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
Correct Answer: B
25. Which of the following is false?
(A) B + tree is used to store data in secondary memory
(B) B + tree is having the same performance as that of indexed sequential file
(C) B + tree allows rapid random access as well as rapid sequential access
(D) B + tree is a balanced tree
Correct Answer: B
26. Which of the following statements are True
(i) GIS deals with spatial data spatial data
(ii) Barometric pressure is a geographic field
(iii) Ramanujan space is related to GIS
(iv) Tessellations partition the study space into cells and assign a value to each cell
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: D
27. CAP theorem in NoSQL stands for
(A) Consistency, Availability, Partition tolerance
(B) Concurrency, Availability, Partition
(C) Consistency, Accuracy, Precision
(D) Concurrency, Atomicity, Partition tolerance
Correct Answer: A
28. On which of the following is not related semantic web?
(A) SPARQL
(B) SKOS
(C) OWL
(D) None of above
Correct Answer: D
29. Which of the following statements are False about big data?
(i) The main components of Big data are map reduce, HDFS and YARN
(ii) Big data processing utilize outside intelligence while taking decision
(iii) Apache Pytarch is a Big Data Technology
(iv) Hadoop is named after the sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Correct Answer: C
30. A bank offers its account holders 9% interest if their balance is above Rs.20,000, else 5%. To achieve this, each of the following SQL statements is executed as separate transactions t1 and t2
t1: update account set balance = balance *1.5 where balance <=20,000
t2: update account set balance set balance = balance * 1.9 where balance > 20,000 Then t1 and t2
(A) t1 executed first followed by t2
(B) t2 executed first followed by t1
(C) Can be executed in any order
(D) Can be executed concurrently
Correct Answer: B
Question deleted
31. Which is not true?
(A) article tag is available in HTML5
(B) hr tag does not have an end tag
(C) hgroup tag is for hiding something
(D) metatags are available in HTML5
Correct Answer: C
32. Which is true?
(A) XHTML comes with a much stricter error handling than HTML.
(B) In XHTML, element names are case insensitive
(C) XHTML Attribute Values need not be Quoted
(D) XHTML Empty Elements need not be Closed
Correct Answer: A
33. URL is a subset of
(A) Uniform Resource Indicator
(B) Uniform Resource Name
(C) Protocol
(D) Domain
Correct Answer: A
34. Which is true?
(A) JavaScript does support automatic type conversion
(B) Negative Infinity is a number and present in JavaScript
(C) = = = is an operator present in javascript
(D) All are true
Correct Answer: D
35. Check whether the following terms are related to Web scraping.
1. Web crawler
2. Spider
3. Bots
4. Degauss
Which of the following is true?
(A) 1 is related
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are related
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are related
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are related
Correct Answer: D
36. Following are a few statements are about XML.
1. XSLT is a popular XML technology
2. SVG has no relation with XML
3. SMIL can be used in XML for multimedia purpose
4. SOAP uses XML
Which is true?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are true
(B) 1 and 4 are true
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are true
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true
Correct Answer: C
37. Following are statements are about CSS
1. There are physical tags and logical tags
2. Icon is an attribute of font
3. DispCss is a media type used
4. CSS box model is related to layout and design of elements
Which is true?
(A) 1,2 and 3 are true
(B) 1 and 4 are true
(C) 1,2 and 4 are true
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4 are true
Correct Answer: C
38. —————— contains all types of PHP code snippets and libraries.
(A) PEAR
(B) PHPBox
(C) PHPColl
(D) PHPpool
Correct Answer: A
39. Consider following statements.
1. LAMP stands for Linux, Apache, MySQL, and PHP.
2. WAMP stack uses Microsoft Windows.
3. phpMyAdmin is a LAMP application for administering MySQL servers
4. Wordpress cannot be installed with LAMP
Which is true?
(A) 1 and 3 are true
(B) 1, 2 and 4 are true
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are true
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are true
Correct Answer: D
40. Consider the following matches.
1. Microsoft – IIS Server
2. Webserver – Apache
3. Magento – Debugging tool
4. PHP – Server side scripting
Which is true?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 are true
(B) 1 and 3 are true
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are true
(D) 1 and 2 are true
Correct Answer: A
41. Switching method is best suited to analog transmission of voice signals
(A) Message
(B) Circuit
(C) Packet
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: B
42. Space division switching is applicable for
(A) Analog environment
(B) Digital environment
(C) Applicable for both
(D) Can not be used in analog and digital environments
Correct Answer: C
43. Consider the following statements about Datagram networks. Which is not true?
(A) There is no fixed route between nodes.
(B) Datagram communication is generally guided by User Datagram Protocol.
(C) Resources are allocated on demand on a Last-Come-First-Serve (LCFS) basis
(D) Known as connectionless switching
Correct Answer: C
44. Which of the following is not true?
(A) SONET is an optical transmission interface
(B) Synchronous digital hierarchy is a compatible version of SONET
(C) The basic SONET building block consists of 810 octets
(D) DataRate corresponding to SONET STS-3 is 622.08 Mbps.
Correct Answer: D
45. Which is NOT true?
(A) Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) uses spread spectrum communication
(B) In CDMA, the codes assigned to the stations are carefully generated codes called chip sequences
(C) In CDMA, it constricts bandwidth’s digital signals or frequencies
(D) Walsh Codes are most commonly used in the orthogonal codes of CDMA applications
Correct Answer: C
46. —————— is a loss of power of a satellite downLink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
(A) Geo-energy loss
(B) Path loss
(C) Wave strength loss
(D) Frequency loss
Correct Answer: B
47. Which is not a valid statement?
(A) Because of its large wavelength, radio waves can penetrate through walls and similar structures.
(B) Radio waves can have wavelength from 1 mm – 100,000 km.
(C) Radio frequencies are sub-divided into six bands.
(D) Radio waves of high frequencies are never absorbed by rain or similar obstacles
Correct Answer: D
48. The common characteristic properties of the laser radiation are given as
1. Monochromaticity
2. Directionality
3. Coherence
4. High brightness
Choose the correct from the below.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true
(B) Only 3, 4 are true
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are true
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4 are true
Correct Answer: A
49. Moon bounce matches with
(A) Earth-moon-earth communication
(B) Radio communication
(C) Radio amateurs
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
50. Which is not true about statistical Time Division Multiplexing?
(A) It is less efficient than a synchronous TDM
(B) It allocates time slots dynamically on demands
(C) Facilitated by means of packet-mode or packet-oriented communication
(D) Communication channel is split into a random range of variable bit-rate data streams or digital channels
Correct Answer: A
51. The IEEE —————— standard uses Distributed Queue Dual Bus network form.
(A) 802.6
(B) 802.9
(C) 802.14
(D) 802.17
Correct Answer: A
52. In OSI model, the —————— layer is responsible for the flow control between the
originating node and the destination node of a message.
(A) Application
(B) Data Link
(C) Network
(D) Transport
Correct Answer: D
53. The —————— hexadecimal digits of an ethernet address is an Organizationally Unique Identifier.
(A) First 2
(B) First 4
(C) First 6
(D) Last 4
Correct Answer: C
54. A network switch has 15 computers connected to it. If no VLANS are present, how many broadcast and collision domains are there, respectively?
(A) 1,1
(B) 1,15
(C) 15,1
(D) 15,15
Correct Answer: B
55. What is the broadcast address on the LAN with the router interface 192.168.16.40/29?
(A) 192.168.16.41
(B) 192.168.16.47
(C) 192.168.16.55
(D) 192.168.16.63
Correct Answer: B
56. The type of cable required for a router-to-switch connection is —————— and for a host-to-switch connection is
(A) Crossover, crossover
(B) Crossover, straight-through
(C) Straight-through, crossover
(D) Straight-through, straight - through
Correct Answer: D
57. —————— is a technique used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops.
(A) Count-to-infinity
(B) Flooding
(C) Split horizon
(D) Time-to-live
Correct Answer: C
58. If a 10 Mbps LAN needs a minimum frame size of 56 bytes (for collision detection), the minimum frame size required for a 100 Mbps LAN is —————— bytes.
(A) 5.6
(B) 56
(C) 64
(D) 560
Correct Answer: D
59. The bandwidth of a communication link is 256 Mbps. If the byte sequence number is of size 32 bits, what is the wrap-around time for sequence numbers?
(A) 128s
(B) 256s
(C) 512s
(D) 1024s
Correct Answer: A
60. Which OFDMA-based IEEE wireless standard is also known as Wi-Fi 6?
(A) 802.11ac
(B) 802.11ax
(C) 802.11be
(D) 802.11g
Correct Answer: B
61. The ICMP message generated when the TTL field of a datagram becomes 0 (thereby causing the datagram to be discarded) is
(A) Destination Unreachable
(B) Network Unreachable for ToS
(C) Source Quench
(D) Time Exceeded
Correct Answer: D
62. In DNS, —————— records are used to point a domain or subdomain to another hostname.
(A) A
(B) AAAA
(C) CNAME
(D) MX
Correct Answer: C
63. —————— is an example of a path vector routing protocol.
(A) BGP
(B) EIGRP
(C) IGMP
(D) IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
64. After a manual MAC address change, —————— ARP may be used to inform other nodes about the new MAC address and the IP to MAC Mapping.
(A) Gratuitous
(B) Proxy
(C) Refresh
(D) Reverse
Correct Answer: A
65. The —————— is the result of a lack of synchronization between the sender and receiver regarding capacity of the flow of data or the size of the packet.
(A) Leaky Bucket Situation
(B) Poison Reverse Situation
(C) Silly Window Syndrome
(D) Sorcerer’s Apprentice Syndrome
Correct Answer: C
66. Which among the following algorithms is used for TCP roundtrip time and time-out estimation?
(A) Bellman-Ford algorithm
(B) Ford-Fulkerson algorithm
(C) Jacobson’s algorithm
(D) Nagle’s algorithm
Correct Answer: C
67. Which among the following fields is not a pad of UDP pseudo header in IPv4?
(A) Destination IP
(B) Destination Port
(C) Protocol field for UDP
(D) UDP length
Correct Answer: B
68. If the hold timer between two BGP routers is set to 120 seconds, then KEEPALIVE messages will be exchanged every ––––––––––––– seconds.
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 40
(D) 60
Correct Answer: C
69. The MIME type audio/mpeg denotes a file with extension
(A) .mpg
(B) .mp3
(C) .mp4
(D) .3gp
Correct Answer: B
70. The IP multicast address range —————— denotes a local sub network.
(A) 224.0.0.0 – 224.0.0.255
(B) 224.0.1.0 – 224.0.1.255
(C) 224.1.0.0 – 224.1.255.255
(D) 224.3.0.0 – 224.4.255.255
Correct Answer: A
71. Which among the following is the correct sequence of DHCP messages?
(A) DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST
(B) DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER
(C) DHCPREQUEST, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER
(D) DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER
Correct Answer: A
72. Two switches are connected together with two crossover cables for redundancy. If Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled, then
(A) The MAC forwarding tables will not get updated
(B) The routing tables will not get updated
(C) There will be automatic load-balancing between the links
(D) There will be broadcast storms in the network
Correct Answer: D
73. In a Cisco router, which among the following access lists will prevent hosts in the range
172.16, 160.0 to 172.16. 191.0?
(A) access-list 10 deny 172.16.160.0 0.0.31.255
(B) access-list 10 deny 172.16.160.0 0.0.191.255
(C) access-list 10 deny 172.16.160.0 0.0.255.255
(D) access-list 10 deny 172.16.160.0 255.255.192.0
Correct Answer: A
74. Which among the following wildcard masks ensure that the exact address will have to be matched on all 4 octets of the address?
(A) 0.0.0.0
(B) 1.1.1.1
(C) 8.8.8.8
(D) 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A
75. In order to avoid rogue DHCP servers and remove malformed DHCP traffic, —————— feature can be configured on switches.
(A) DHCP lease
(B) DHCP proxy
(C) DHCP snooping
(D) DHCP time-out
Correct Answer: C
76. When a router sets the metric for an unreachable link to infinity in the routing table, it is an example of
(A) Half-open connection
(B) Heartbeat timer
(C) Route Holddown
(D) Route Poisoning
Correct Answer: D
77. The default port for SSH client connections is
(A) 22
(B) 43
(C) 443
(D) 3306
Correct Answer: A
78. What part of DNS is flushed by the command ipconfig /flushdns?
(A) Domain records
(B) Forward lookup zones
(C) Resolver cache
(D) TLD nameservers
Correct Answer: C
79. A router has three different routes to the same network in its routing table – static, RIP and EIGRP. The default route to the network would be
(A) EIGRP
(B) RIP
(C) Static
(D) Chosen randomly
Correct Answer: C
80. When a DNS query message is created, a 1-bit —————— flag is used to indicate the action to be taken in case the DNS server does not have the required record.
(A) Authoritative DNS answer
(B) Message not truncated
(C) Recursion not available
(D) Recursion-desired
Correct Answer: D
81. Assurance that the sender of information is provided with proof of delivery and the recipient is provided with proof of the sender’s identity, so neither can later deny having processed the information is called
(A) Authentication
(B) Integrity
(C) Non repudiation
(D) Availability
Correct Answer: C
82. Two forms of risk assessment are:
(A) Analytical and assessment
(B) Technical and procedural
(C) Qualitative and quantitative
(D) Subjective and objective
Correct Answer: C
83. An audit log is an example of what type of control?
(A) Containment
(B) Preventive
(C) Recovery
(D) Detection
Correct Answer: D
84. What is the default port id of https port
(A) 80
(B) 43
(C) 443
(D) 8433
Correct Answer: C
85. A packet filter firewall operates in the
(A) Application layer
(B) Network or transport layer
(C) Physical layer
(D) Data link layer
Correct Answer: B
86. Which of the following attacks will be protected by a firewall?
(A) Denial of service
(B) Phishing
(C) Shoulder surfing
(D) Dumpster diving
Correct Answer: A
87. Which of the following is telnet port id
(A) 21
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 7
Correct Answer: C
88. Which of the statements are not true to classify VPN systems?
(A) Protocols used for tunneling the traffic
(B) Securing the network from bots and malwares
(C) Whether VPNs are providing site-to-site or remote access connection
(D) Levels of security provided for sending and receiving data privately
Correct Answer: B
89. Site-to-site VPNs are also known as
(A) Switch-to-switch VPNs
(B) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
(C) Point-to-point VPNs
(D) Router-to-router VPNs
Correct Answer: D
90. Remote access VPNs rely on —————— and —————— for secure connection
(A) IPSec, SSL
(B) L2TP, SSL
(C) IPSec, SSH
(D) SSH, SSL
Correct Answer: A
91. How many layers are there is the TCP/IP protocol architecture
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
Correct Answer: C
92. —————— is used between a network management console and network devices (routers, bridges, intelligent hubs) to collect and exchange network management information.
(A) VLC
(B) SNMP
(C) DNS
(D) RIP
Correct Answer: B
93. 150.51.30.40 is a class —————— IP address
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Correct Answer: B
94. The following is not a remote administration tool
(A) ssh
(B) telnet
(C) rsh
(D) csh
Correct Answer: D
95. The Active Directory domain database file —————— contains all domain data including password hashes for users, computers, trusts, etc.
(A) NTDS.dit
(B) IDS.dit
(C) DNS.dit
(D) DC.dit
Correct Answer: A
96. —————— is a challenge-response authenticate protocol used to authenticate a client to resource on an Active Directory domain?
(A) LMS
(B) NTLM
(C) AD
(D) DMZ
Correct Answer: B
97. In an Active Directory Environment —————— is used for centralized management of computers in the domain
(A) Local account
(B) NTLM
(C) DHCP
(D) Group policy
Correct Answer: D
98. Which of the following is not a major component of an active directory?
(A) Tree
(B) Forest
(C) Domain
(D) Schema
Correct Answer: D
99. What is the file system for Active Directory?
(A) FAT
(B) EXT
(C) NTFS
(D) XFS
Correct Answer: C
100. Which of the following is not a third party tool to audit, manage, monitor, secure, and report on Active Directory?
(A) Lepide
(B) Netwrix
(C) Ossisto
(D) Monitor
Correct Answer: D
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