Assistant Dental Surgeon - Health Services Question Paper and Answer Key

 Question Code: 048/2020

Name of Post: Assistant Dental Surgeon

Department: Health Services

Cat. No: 385/2019

Date of Test: 12.11. 2020

1. Which among the following is not a bone of facial skeleton ?
 A) Ethmoid
 B) Lacrimal
 C) Maxilla
 D) Vomer

 2. Which among the following is not a boundary of Macewan’s triangle ?
 A) Posterosuperior margin of external acoustic meatus
 B) Supramastoid crest
 C) Vertical tangent to posterior margin of meatus
 D) Vertical tangent to anterior margin of meatus

 3. Which among the following is a branch of mandibular nerve ?
 A) Auriculotemporal nerve
 B) Infraorbital nerve
 C) Zygomaticofacial nerve
 D) Zygomaticotemporal nerve

 4. Which among the following is not a content of carotid sheath ?
 A) Common carotid artery
 B) Internal jugular vein
 C) Sympathetic trunk
 D) Vagus nerve

 5. Which among the following is the derivative of first branchial arch ?
 A) Buccinator
 B) Mylohyoid
 C) Platysma
 D) Stapedius

 6. Functional residual capacity of lung is calculated as
 A) Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume
 B) Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume
 C) Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume
 D) Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume

 7. Renin is secreted by
 A) Macula densa cells
 B) Juxtaglomerular cells
 C) Lacis cells
 D) Mesangial cells

 8. QRS complex in an ECG represents
 A) Ventricular depolarization
 B) Atrial depolarization
 C) Ventricular repolarization
 D) Atrial depolarization + AV nodal delay

 9. All are sensations carried by posterior column tracts except
 A) Two-point discrimination
 B) Vibration sense
 C) Pain
 D) Stereognosis

 10. Chvostek’s sign is seen in
 A) Cushing’s syndrome
 B) Addison’s disease
 C) Hyperthyroidism
 D) Hypoparathyroidism

 11. The most commonly mutated protooncogene in human tumours is
 A) RAS protein

 12. False statement about secondary healing is
 A) More intense inflammation than primary healing
 B) Greater volume of granulation tissue than in primary healing
 C) Greater mass of scar tissue compared to primary healing
 D) Minimal wound contraction

 13. Fibrinoid necrosis is usually seen in
 A) Infarct brain
 B) Tuberculosis
 C) Walls of arteries in immune vasculitis
 D) Ischemic necrosis of heart

 14. The most abundant glycoprotein in basement membrane is
 A) Elastin
 B) Laminin
 C) Fibronectin
 D) Integrin

 15. Epithelioid cells are
 A) Modified epithelial cells
 B) Modified endothelial cells
 C) Activated macrophages
 D) Transdifferentiated lymphocytes

 16. In nonequilibrium type of enzyme inhibition for drug action
 A) kM increase, Vmax is unchanged
 B) kM is unchanged, Vmax reduce
 C) kM decrease, Vmax increase
 D) kM increase, Vmax reduce

 17. In competitive receptor antagonism
 A) Agonist DRC shifted to right, maximum response is lowered
 B) Agonist DRC shifted to left, no suppression of maximum response
 C) Parallel shift of agonist DRC, no suppression of maximum response
 D) Flattening of agonist DRC, maximum response is lowered

 18. The mechanism responsible for development of tolerance to morphine is
 A) Drug disposition
 B) Enzyme mediated
 C) Polymorphism
 D) Cellular

 19. Pharmacovigilance includes
 A) Scrutiny of drug trials
 B) Scrutiny of adherence to good laboratory practices
 C) Lead optimization
 D) Post marketing surveillance

 20. The combination of sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim is an example of
 A) Supra additive drug combination
 B) Additive drug combination
 C) Propagative drug combination
 D) Targeted drug combination

 21. Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolytic pathway ?
 A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
 B) Pyruvate carboxylase
 C) Phosphoglucomutase
 D) Phosphofructokinase

 22. Which of the following is not true about competitive inhibition of enzymes ?
 A) The inhibitor is structural analogue of the substrate
 B) Reversible
 C) Vmax is decreased
 D) Km is increased

 23. The immunoglobulin that mediates primary immune response is
 A) IgA
 B) IgE
C) IgM
 D) IgG

 24. All the following are products formed from tyrosine except
 A) Melanin
 B) Serotonin
 C) Epinephrine
 D) Dopamine

 25. Which of the following lipoprotein transport cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues ?
 A) Chylomicron
 B) Very low density lipoprotein
 C) Low density lipoprotein
 D) High density lipoprotein

 26. The mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin is by
 A) Increasing adenylate cyclase activity
 B) Blocking the production and release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction
 C) Inactivating elongation factor EF-2
 D) Causing lysis of erythrocytes

 27. Vincent’s angina is caused by
 A) Staphylococcus aureus
 B) Leptotrichia buccalis
 C) Streptococcus viridans
 D) Haemophilus influenzae

 28. Selective media for the isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
 A) Loeffler’s serum slope
 B) Lowenstein-Jensen medium
 C) Thayer Martin medium
 D) Wilson-Blair medium

 29. The antibody responsible for anaphylactic reactions is
 A) IgG
 B) IgA
 C) IgD
 D) IgE

 30. Germ tube formation is shown by
 A) Candida kefyr
 B) Candida tropicalis
 C) Candida parapsilosis
 D) Candida albicans

 31. Hypomineralised structures of the enamel rods and inter rods substance is called
 A) Enamel tuft
 B) Enamel lamellae
 C) Striae of retzius
 D) Prismless enamel

 32. True about dentin
 A) Hardness 1/5th of enamel
 B) Hardness less at DEJ
 C) Modulus of elasticity 40 GPa
 D) Compressive strength 384 MPa

 33. Cusps that contact opposing teeth during maximum habitual intercuspation
 A) Nonfunctional cusp
 B) Stamp cusp
 C) Nonholding cusp
 D) Both A) and B)

 34. Stratum spinosum contains
 A) Cuboidal cells
 B) Extremely flattened cells
 C) Extremely flattened and dehydrated cells
 D) Tonofibril bundles

 35. False about circumvallate papillae
 A) 8 to 12 in number
 B) Located adjacent and posterior to sulcus terminalis
 C) Surrounded by sulcular groove
 D) None of the above

 36. Diameter at D16 for No : 20 reamer
 A) 0.20
 B) 0.32
 C) 0.52
 D) 0.62

 37. Distance from one cutting edge to the next in endodontic instrument is called
 A) Land
 B) Pitch
 C) Flute
 D) None of the above

 38. Risk indicators for caries
 A) White spots
 B) Visible plaque
 C) Deep pit and fissures
 D) Both B) and C)

 39. Recommended instrument to detect caries in ICDAS assessment
 A) No 23 explorer
 B) CPITN probe
 C) JW17 explorer
 D) DG16 explorer

 40. Axiopulpal depth of proximal box in Amalgam Class 11 preparation is
 A) 2 – 2.2 mm
 B) .2 – .8 mm
 C) .5 – 1 mm
 D) 1 – 1.5 mm

 41. Development of tooth begins at _____________ week of intrauterine life.
 A) 6 weeks
 B) 4 weeks
 C) 3 weeks
 D) 2 weeks

 42. The ectomesenchymal cells and fibers that surrounds enamel organ and dental papilla is
 A) Alveolar bone
 B) Dental follicle
 C) Dental sac
 D) None of the above

 43. 80% of nerve fibers in the pulp tissue are
 A) A-delta
 B) A-alpha
 C) A-beta
 D) C-fibers

 44. Un-mineralized zone of dentin seen above odontoblastic zone is
 A) Intertubular dentin
 B) Peritubular dentin
 C) Predentin
 D) Interglobular dentin

 45. In molars with radix paramolaris extra root is seen toward
 A) Lingually
 B) Mesially
 C) Distally
 D) Bucally

 46. First recognizable zone of enamel caries
 A) Body of the lesion
 B) Dark zone
 C) Translucent zone
 D) Surface zone

 47. What should not be used to sterilize dental hand piece ?
 A) Chemiclave
 B) Autoclave
 C) Dry heat
 D) Ethylene oxide

 48. Which is not a feature of exploratory instrument ?
 A) Large diameter
 B) Small diameter
 C) Light weight
 D) None

 49. Cavo surface margin on occlusal surface in composite is
 A) 80 degree
 B) 90 degree
 C) 120 degree
 D) 160 degree

 50. ISO Technical Committee (TC) number for dentistry
 A) 104
 B) 105
 C) 106
 D) 107

 51. The most common odontogenic cyst is
 A) Radicular cyst
 B) Dentigerous cyst
 C) Odontogenic keratocyst
 D) Gingival cyst

 52. “Floating tooth syndrome” appearance is seen in
 A) Fibrous dysplasia
 B) Cherubism
 C) Vanishing bone
 D) Paget’s disease

 53. Gustatory sweating is
 A) Auriculotemporal syndrome
 B) Fothergill’s disease
 C) Crocodile tears
 D) Sphenopalatine neuralgia

 54. Widespread carious destruction of deciduous teeth most commonly four maxillary incisors followed by first molars with absence of caries in the mandibular incisors
 A) Chronic caries
 B) Acute caries
 C) Nursing caries
 D) Rampant caries

 55. A ‘thistle-tube’ shaped pulp chamber is found in
 A) Dentinogenesis Imperfect II
 B) Dentin Dysplasia Type II
 C) Dentin Dysplasia Type I
 D) Odontodysplasia

 56. Which of the following cysts manifests typically between the roots of maxillary lateral incisor and canine ?
 A) Nasoalveolar cyst
 B) Nasopalatine duct cyst
 C) Globulomaxillary cyst
 D) Median palatal cyst

 57. Which of the following bacteriae is more important for producing cellulitis ?
 A) Streptococci
 B) Pneumococci
 C) Staphylococci
 D) Helicobacter pylori

 58. Discharging sinuses with sulphur granules are a feature of
 A) Tuberculosis
 B) Actinomycosis
 C) Ludwig’s Angina
 D) Pindborg’s Tumour

 59. Which of the following lesions does not manifests as a multilocular radiolucency ?
 A) Ameloblastoma
 B) Odontogenic keratocyst
 C) Periapical cyst
 D) Adenoameloblastoma

 60. Which of the following lesions manifest with intra oral vesicles and prodromal fever and malaise ?
 A) Bullous pemphigoid
 B) Lichen Planus
 C) Psoriasis
 D) Herpes Simplex

 61. Arch wire used as material of choice for initial alignment in fixed appliance therapy
 A) Stainless steel
 B) Nitinol
 C) Elgiloy
 D) Cu Niti

 62. What percentage of cleft lip patients have cleft palate as a concurrent abnormality ?
 A) 60%
 B) 70%
 C) 80%
 D) 90%

 63. Chances of true skeletal changes in maxilla using face mask is best before the age of
 A) 8 years
 B) 10 years
 C) 12 years
 D) 14 years

 64. Opening of bite with anterior biteplane in the correction of deep bite occurs due to
 A) Intrusion of lower anterior teeth
 B) Proclination of upper anterior teeth
 C) Eruption of posterior teeth
 D) All of the above

 65. Which of the following cephalometric values express the variations in the vertical height of the face ?

 66. Early mesial shift of the first permanent molar
 A) Compensates for incisal liability
 B) Corrects the developing midline diastema
 C) Utilizes the anthropoid space
 D) Depends on the leeway space

 67. Choking off effect of enamel is seen
 A) After hand over mouth exercise
 B) After sodium fluoride application
 C) After a traumatic dental injury
 D) In a young permanent tooth with a deep dentinal carious lesion

 68. Broadbent phenomenon is a
 A) Normal feature in the pre-dentate stage
 B) Carious lesion in an unerupted tooth
 C) Presence of multiple supernumerary teeth
 D) Transient malocclusion

 69. The apex of the pedodontic triangle is occupied by the
 A) Pedodontist
 B) Parent/caretaker
 C) Child
 D) Society

 70. Which of the following conditions is not associated with self-injury behavior in children ?
 A) Lynch syndrome
 B) Autism spectrum disorders
 C) Cornelia de Lange syndrome
 D) Cerebral palsy

 71. Stage one of the Nolla’s stages of tooth development denotes
 A) Absence of crypt
 B) Presence of crypt
 C) Initial calcification
 D) Crown completion

 72. Which material is not indicated as a root canal obturating material after pulpectomy in a primary tooth ?
 A) Zinc oxide eugenol
 B) Iodoform paste
 C) Endoflas
 D) Mineral trioxide aggregate

 73. During a complex tongue thrust swallow, there is no contraction of
 A) Temporal muscle
 B) Mentalis muscle
 C) Lips
 D) Facial muscles

 74. Relative analgesia is a
 A) Conscious sedation technique
 B) Use of siblings for behaviour management
 C) Pre-appointment behavior modification technique
 D) NSAID prescribed in children

 75. Gerber appliance is
 A) A functional space maintainer
 B) A habit breaker appliance
 C) An active space maintainer
 D) None of the above

 76. In the X-ray tube X-rays are originating from
 A) Anode
 B) Cathode
 C) Filament
 D) Focusing cup.

 77. Sialographic appearance of normal gland
 A) Ball in hand appearance
 B) Sausage like appearance
 C) Snow storm appearance
 D) Tree in winter appearance

 78. Chloroma is the term given for
 A) Soft tissue swelling in Burkits Lymphoma
 B) Intraoral tumour associated with Hodgkins Lymphoma
 C) Greenish tumour like swelling in leukemia
 D) Benign tumour associated with plasma cell gingivitis

 79. A latent image is
 A) An image that is very late in its formation
 B) A very light radiograph
 C) Produced after exposing but before developing
 D) A very dark radiograph

 80. Interstitial glossitis is a feature of
 A) Primary syphilis
 B) Secondary syphilis
 C) Tertiary syphilis
 D) Congenital syphilis

 81. Candida Leukoplakia is
 A) Acute Pseudomembraneous Candidiasis
 B) Acute Atrophic Candidiasis
 C) Chronic Atrophic Candidiasis
 D) Chronic Hyperplastic Candidiasis

 82. Which among the following is not caused by HPV ?
 A) Molluscum Contagiosum
 B) Verruca Vulgaris
 C) Condyloma Accuminatum
 D) Focal Epithelial Hyperplasia

 83. Drug of choice for Trigeminal Neuralgia
 A) Gabapentin
 B) Lamotrigine
 C) Carbamazepine
 D) Baclofen

 84. The modern X-ray tube is otherwise known as
 A) Crooks Tube
 B) Coolidge Tube
 C) Roentgen’s Apparatus
 D) Thermionic Emission Tube

 85. In Periapical Radiographs, Salt and Pepper appearance is seen in
 A) Periodontal abscess
 B) Sjogrens syndrome
 C) Thalassemia
 D) Osteosarcoma

 86. True about Sullivan’s Index is
 A) Expectation of life free of disability
 B) Ranges from 0 to 1
 C) Lost year of healthy life
 D) Work loss days

 87. Oral cancer biopsy is
 A) Primodial level of prevention
 B) Primary level of prevention
 C) Secondary level of prevention
 D) Tertiary level of prevention

 88. Probable or putative risk factors that have been identified in cross-sectional studies but not confirmed through longitudinal studies is
 A) Risk determinant
 B) Risk indicators
 C) Risk predictors
 D) Risk markers

 89. All are true about PICOT except
 A) P – Sample of subjects
 B) I – Intervention
 C) C – Control
 D) T – Time

 90. Temporary hardness of water is due to
 A) Magnesium bicarbonate
 B) Calcium sulphate
 C) Magnesium sulphate
 D) Calcium nitrates

 91. Among the following which incision is not associated with Modified Widman Flap ?
 A) Internal bevel incision
 B) External bevel incision
 C) Crevicular incision
 D) Interdental incision

 92. Which is the test used to suggest the presence of Trauma from Occlusion ?
 A) Tension test
 B) Sounding test
 C) Fremitus test
 D) Blanching test

 93. Precision for a conventional periodontal probe is
 A) 0.01 mm
 B) 0.1 mm
 C) 1 mm
 D) 0.5 mm

 94. Bleeding on probing is a good predictor of
 A) Progressive attachment loss
 B) Periodontal stability
 C) Bone loss
 D) Infrabony pocket formation

 95. A cellular cementum is often confined to
 A) Furcation area
 B) Cervical portion
 C) Middle third of root
 D) Apex of the root

 96. Carbon fibre posts have a modulus of elasticity similar to that of Dentin which is about
 A) 2 GPa
 B) 10 GPa
 C) 20 GPa
 D) 200 GPa

 97. Horizontal overlap of anterior teeth is termed
 A) Overbite
 B) Closed bite
 C) Overjet
 D) Scissor bite

 98. Shortened Dental Arch (SDA) concept is for
 A) Arrangement of teeth in short arches
 B) Sex, personality and age of patients
 C) Ridge augmentation treatment
 D) Orthognathic surgery to shorten dental arches

 99. Hanau’s quint has all of the following except
 A) Compensating curves
 B) Balanced occlusion
 C) Incisal guidance
 D) Condylar inclination

 100. All ceramic crowns recommended for patients with minimal occlusal clearance is
 A) DMLS crown
 B) Dicor
 C) IPS empress
 D) Monolithic crowns

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