Branch Manager-District Cooperative Bank - Question Paper and Answer Key

Branch Manager-District Cooperative Bank

Cat.No: 433/2009,434/2009

Date of Test : 04/01/2019

Question Code : 005/2019


1. The International Co-operative Alliance (ICA) was formed in the year :
(A) 1888
(B) 1895
(C) 1890
(D) 1892

2. The country in which Co-operative movement was first originated?
(A) France
(B) Denmark
(C) Germany
(D) England

3. The President of a Co-operative society is an :
(A) Officer 
(B) Employee
(C) Owner
(D) Advisor

4. What was the objective of National Policy on Co- operatives framed in 2002?
(A) Provide support for promotion and development of cooperatives
(B) Reduction of’ regional imbalances
(C) Strengthening of co-operative education, training and human resource development.
(D) All of the above

5. Which year National Development Council (NDC) had recommended a National Policy on Co-operative Societies?
(A) 1955
(B) 1958
(C) 1960
(D) 1957

6. A famous personality who has adopted new measures for giving relief to the people living in urban areas of Germany?
(A) F. W. Raiffeisen
(B) Herr Franz Schulze
(C) Sir Devzil lbbetson
(D) Sir Malcolm Darling

7. The Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act 2002 of India has incorporated Co-operative values and principles in its ————————— schedule.
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

8. The Committee headed by ————————— recommended the principle ‘One Man One Vote’.
(A) Raiffeisen
(B) Gorwala
(C) Mac Lagan 
(D) Minto Morley

9. In which Five Year Plan, National Co-operative Consumers’ Federation was established?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

10. The Kaira District Milk Producers Union was formed in the year :
(A) 1912
(B) 1915
(C) 1946 
(D) 1950

11. Which committee recommended the formation of NABARD?
(A) B.Sivaraman 
(B) Khusro
(C) Brahm Prakash
(D) None of these

12. Interest rates of deposits of Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by :
(A) General Body
(C) Government
(D) Registrar

13. Operation flood III was launched by:

14. Rochdale friendly Co-operative Society was formed in :
(A) 1825
(B) 1830
(C) 1835
(D) 1840

15. LAMPS stands for :
(A) Large Sized Adivasi Multipurpose Co-operative Societies
(B) Large Sized Multipurpose Co-operative Societies
(C) Large Agricultural Multipurpose Co-operative Societies
(D) None of the above

16. The first All India Co-operative Congress held at:
(A) Patna
(B) Bombay
(C) New Delhi
(D) Calcutta

17. Who had visited India in the capacity of a Co-operative Consultant to the Planning Commission in 1957?
(A) Sir. Malcolm Darling 
(B) Dr. Ulkrik
(C) Dr. William King
(D) Lougi Luzzatti

18. Regional Rural Banks came into existence as per the recommendations of ————————— Committee.
(A) C.V. Nair
(B) Sivaraman
(C) Narsimhan 
(D) Mehtha

19. NABARD started functioning from
(A) January 1982
(B) April 1982
(C) July 1982 
(D) September 1982

20. The shortcomings in the Act of 1904 was removed by another legislation known as
(A) Co-operative Societies Act of 1912.
(B) The Model Co-operative Act
(C) Constitution Amendment Bill
(D) None of’ these

21. The first Diary Co-operative Society in India was registered at
(A) Anand in Gujarat
(B) Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh
(C) Aurangabad in Maharashtra
(D) Ahmedabad in Gujarat

22. ——————— recommended the adoption of Crop Loan system:
(A) The All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
(B) The Planning Commission
(C) National Co-operative Union

23. ————————— is the federation of central Co-operative banks in a state:
(A) District Co-operative Bank
(B) Co-operative Union
(C) Land Development Bank
(D) State Co-operative Bank

24. Organisational structure followed by co-operatives in India:
(A) Decentralised
(B) Centralised
(C) Federal 
(D) None of these

25. ————————— has been playing an important role in the development of Co-operative Marketing in India:

26. IFFCO First put up two fertilizer plants in the State of:
(A) U.P
(B) Gujarat
(C) Bihar
(D) Maharashtra

27. ————— is an apex organization of Consumers’ Co-operatives in India.

28. The National Co-operative Housing Federation of India was set up in the year :
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1969 
(D) 1966

29. Kerala Co-operative Societies Act came into force with effect from :
(A) 15-05-1969 
(B) 01-04-1968
(C) 01-04-1969
(D) 01-05-1969

30. The final authority of a co-operative society shall be vested in the:
(A) Managing Committee
(B) General Body
(C) Registrar
(D) Secretary

31. The committee of a society is liable to call a Special General Body Meeting after getting a requisition either from :
(A) Registrar or 1/5 of total members
(B) Secretary or 1/5 of total members
(C) Registrar or 1/4 of total members
(D) President or 1/4 of total members

32. The quorum for a meeting of Committee shall be more than :
(A) 20% of the total number of members of that committee
(B) 30% of the total number of members of that committee
(C) 50% of the total number of members of that committee
(D) 25% of the total number of members of that committee

33. Who shall be the custodian of cash securities and other properties of the society?
(A) President
(B) Committee
(C) Cashier
(D) Secretary

34. Principal State Partnership Fund can be utilized for the purpose of:
(A) Directly purchasing shares in another society with limited liability
(B) Providing funds to a central society to purchase shares in another society
(C) To repay the amount to the Government
(D) All of the above

35. Every co-operative society shall transfer an amount not less than ————————— % of its net profit to the Reserve Fund:
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%

36. Every society with limited liability which are accepting deposits and not coming within the Banking Regulation Act shall maintain minimum liquid cover of 25% on :
(A) Total loans and advances
(B) Net loans and advances
(C) Total demand and time liabilities
(D) Total liabilities

37. Audit fees is exempted from which of the following societies :
(A) Coir societies
(B) Housing societies
(C) Transport societies
(D) Farming societies

38. Registrar shall issue an order of inquiry in a society:
(A) Registrar on his own motion
(B) Receipt of inquiry report of the Vigilance Officer
(C) On receipt of application by majority of members of the committee
(D) All of these

39. Any dispute arises in the affairs of a co-operative society shall be decided by:
(A) Co-operative Arbitration Court and Registrar
(B) Registrar
(C) Co-operative Arbitration Court
(D) None of these

40. One of the following is not a reason for winding up of a society:
(A) Total number of’ members has been reduced to less than twenty five
(B) Society has not commenced working within five months of its registration
(C) Registrar received application for winding up from three-fourth of the members of the society
(D) Registrar after conducting an inquiry/inspection under section 65 or 66 is of the opinion that the society ought to be wound up

41. The liquidator shall complete the winding up proceedings within a period of  ————————— from the date of his appointment :
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 1/2 years

42. A co-operative bank which has been affiliated with the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is called :
(A) insured co-operative bank
(B) Guaranteed co-operative bank
(C) Protected co-operative bank
(D) None of these

43. One can prefer an appeal against the order of the Registrar to the Kerala Co-operative Tribunal within ————————— days from the date of such order :
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days 
(D) 90 days

44. The term of office of the members of’ the general body of’ State Co-operative Union shall be ————————— years :
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years 
(D) No limit

45. SARFAESI ACT came into force in:
(A) 2000
(B) 2001
(C) 2002 
(D) 2003

46. ————————— are the foundation stone of the grass root level co-operative credit structure in India :
(B) DCCB’s
(C) SCB’s
(D) UCB’s

47. The executive and administrative functions of’ District Central Co-operative Banks are carried out by :
(A) Chairman
(B) Vice Chairman
(C) Chief Executive Officer 
(D) Manager

48. The nodal agency at the state level for chnnelization of funds from RBI/ NABARD:
(A) SCB’s 
(B) DCCB’s
(C) UCB’s

49. Urban Co-operative Banks are controlled by :
(B) Co-operative Registrar
(C) Both RBI and Co-operative Registrar
(D) None of these

50. Which Act lays down the law relating to payment of customer’s cheque by a bank and also protection available to a bank?
(A) Banking Regulation Act
(B) Negotiable Instruments Act
(C) Investor Protection Act
(D) SEBI Act

51. Capturing the essential required particulars from the paper’ cheque to form an electronic image is Called :
(A) Crossing of cheque
(B) MICR cheque
(C) Truncation of cheque
(D) None of these

52. Which of the following grants protection to a collecting bank?
(A) Bank has in good faith and without negligence received payment for a customer in properly opened account
(B) Bank has collected the payment through clearing system
(C) Bank has collected the payment in a properly opened account
(D) Where the cheque deposited for collection was account payee and crossed

53. In societies. membership to local bodies is allowed as per :
(A) Kerala Co-operative Societies Act. 1969
(B) Kerala Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act. 1999
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

54. The Bankers’ right to retain securities etc.. in respect of general balance due by their owner to the banker is called :
(A) Particular Lien
(B) General Lien
(C) Set- off
(D) Appropriation

55. For Central or State Government, to file suit, the limitation period is ————————— years as per limitation Act.1963
(A) 3 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 30 years

56. A term loan shall be classified as Non Performing. if interest and / or installment of principal of that loan remain overdue for a period of more than ————————— days:
(A) 45 days
(B) 90 days
(C) 180 days
(D) 365 days

57. Risks arise out of external and uncontrollable factors are called :
(A) Systematic risk 
(B) Unsystematic Risk
(C) Default Risk
(D) Business Risk

58. All urban co-operative banks are required to maintain stipulated level of :
(A) CRR only
(B) SLR only
(C) Both CRR & SLR
(D) None of these

59. For what purpose the Treasury Bills are issued?
(A) For the short term requirements of the Government
(B) For the capital requirements of’ RBI
(C) For the long term requirements of the Government
(D) For the capital requirements oh RBI approved Financial Institutions

60. The rate at which RBI borrow money from banks is called :
(A) Coupon Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) Reverse Repo Rate 
(D) Floating Rate

61. ————————— involves vertical expansion of functions and responsibility of the job holder.
(A) Job Enlargement
(B) Job Description
(C) Job Enrichment 
(D) Job Analysis

62. One of the following is not a technique of De Jobbing :
(A) Pyramid Organisation 
(B) Flatter Organisation
(C) Boundaryless Organisation
(D) None of these

63. Employing a competent and experienced person already working with another reputed company in the same or different industry is called :
(A) Outsourcing
(B) E-Recruitment
(C) Referrals
(D) Poaching

64. The practice of’ identifying. studying and building upon best practices in the industry or in the world is called :
(B) Benchmarking
(C) Kaizen
(D) Re-engineerin

65. One of the following is not coming under On the job training :
(A) Mentoring
(B) Vestibule Training
(C) Coaching
(D) Position Rotation

66. A small group of people who voluntarily perform quality improvement activities at the work place is called :
(A) Quality Management System
(B) Quality Improvement System
(C) Total Quality Management
(D) Quality Circle

67. Who introduced the concept Management By Objective (MBO)?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Peter F Drucker 
(D) F.W Taylor

68. As per Herzberg’s Motivation — Hygiene Theory. One of’ the following is a hygiene factor :
(A) Salary
(B) Recognition
(C) Possibility of’ Growth
(D) Advancement

69. Prevention of’ Money Laundering Act passed in the year :
(A) 2004
(B) 2002
(C) 2006
(D) 2007

70. One of the following is not a Credit Rating Institution :

71. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is :
(A) Maximization of production
(B) Maximization of sales
(C) Maximization of owner’s wealth 
(D) Maximization of profit

72. The reciprocal of the earnings yield is called the ————————— ratio.
(A) Dividend yield
(B) Price - earning
(C) Earnings per share
(D) Dividend per share

73. Net working capital means :
(A) Excess of current liabilities over current assets
(B) Total of current assets
(C) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
(D) Excess of total assets over total liabilities

74. Capitalization of undistributed profit is called :
(A) Rights shares
(B) Sweat equity shares
(C) Preferential shares
(D) Bonus shares

75. The use of debt capital along with the owners’ equity in the capital structure is described as :
(A) Financial leverage 
(B) Operating leverage
(C) Fair capitalization
(D) Optimum capital structure

76. The rate of return foregone on the next best alternative investment opportunity of comparable risk is termed as :
(A) Opportunity cost 
(B) Specific cost
(C) Return on equity
(D) Weighted cost

77. The discount rate which equates the present values of an investment’s cash inflows and out flows is called :
(A) Net Present Value
(B) Average Rate of Return
(C) Profitability Index
(D) Internal Rate of’ Return

78. ————————— indicates the level of sales at which costs and revenues are in equilibrium.
(A) Margin of Safety
(B) Contribution Ratio
(C) Break Even Point 
(D) All of these

79. Agency costs increases with the increase of ————————— in the capital mix.
(A) Equity
(B) Debt
(C) Retained earnings
(D) None of these

80. Unsecured promissory notes issued by better rated firms to raise short term funds is called :
(A) Secured Premium Note
(B) Zero Coupon Bond
(C) Commercial Paper 
(D) Letter of Credit

81. The parameters that invite corrective action from the RBI does not include :
(B) Profitability Ratio
(C) Net NPA
(D) Return on Assets

82. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code came into force in the year :
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2016 
(D) 2018

83. One of the following is not true in the case of Payment Banks :
(A) Payment banks can receive deposits
(B) Payment banks can lend money
(C) Payment banks have to invest 75% of its demand deposits in G Sec and T Bills
(D) Minimum paid up capital of Payment banks is 100 crores

84. The concept of Small Finance Banks was given by ————————— Committee on financial
inclusion :
(A) Nachiket mor 
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) D.Subbarao
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

85. Delphi method of estimating future demand for a product or service is associated with :
(A) Econometric analysis
(B) Expert Opinion method
(C) Market Test method
(D) Sales Force opinion

86. Economic growth potential that can result from shift in population’s age structure is called :
(A) Population Dividend
(B) Demographic Surplus
(C) Demographic Dividend 
(D) New Generation Reward

87. Which of the following is an example for product attribute?
(A) Product Design 
(B) Product Packaging
(C) Brand
(D) Brand Equity

88. Who introduced the concept Bottom of the Pyramid?
(A) Philip kotler
(B) Michael porter
(C) S.L. Hart
(D) C.K.Prahalad

89. The practice of selling two or more separate products together for a single, lower price than what the items would cost if sold separately is called :
(A) Price Bundling 
(B) Price Lining
(C) Reference Pricing
(D) Competition Pricing

90. Which of the following is not the stage of new product development?
(A) Idea Generation
(B) Business Analysis
(C) Test Marketing
(D) Market Segmentation

91. Consumers who like to avoid change and rely on traditional products until they are no longer available are called :
(A) Late majority
(B) Laggards
(C) Lame duck
(D) Late comers

92. A firm‘s practice of setting a very low price for one or more of its products with the intent to drive its competition out of business is called :
(A) Price Skimming
(B) Predatory pricing
(C) Cost pricing
(D) Price discrimination

93. In which stage of product life cycle. the company takes decision whether to maintain. harvest or drop the product?
(A) Pioneering
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Decline

94. The objective of Test Marketing is to :
(A) Test consumers with the product
(B) Introduce product in open market
(C) Predict product’s performance and its future
(D) Test the market with consumers

95. Design products on a computer and then produce rough models to show potential consumers for their reactions is called :
(A) Rapid prototyping 
(B) Physical prototyping
(C) Product imaging
(D) None of these

96. How many banks merged with SBI in the year 2017?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6 
(D) 7

97. Time norm for disposal of loan application below Rs. 25.000 under priority sector is :
(A) 15 days 
(B) 30 days
(C) 45 days
(D) None of these

98. Statements to be prepared and submitted by co-operative society to the Registrar include:
(A) Receipt and Disbursement for the year
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) All of these

99. Which agency is in charge of’ planning and coordination of co-operative training programmes in the country?

100. VMNICOM was set up in the year 1967 at :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Baroda
(C) Pune 
(D) Ahmadabad

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