Treatment Organizer Gr.II-Health Services - Kasaragod District
Date of Test : 10/08/2018
Question Alpha Code: A
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1. The part of a cell at which glycolysis taking place is :
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Cell membrane
2. What is the respiratory quotient of carbohydrate?
(A) One
(B) Less than one
(C) infinity
(D) zero
3. “S A node” is located on ––––––––––––– part of heart.
(A) Left atrium
(B) Right Ventricle
(C) Left ventricle
(D) Right atrium
4. ––––––––––––– is a part of male reproductive system in humans.
(A) Epididymis
(B) Ampulla
(C) Isthmus
(D) Cervix
5. Villi is found inside the :
(A) Stomach
(B) Small intestine
(C) Oesophagus
(D) Large intestine
6. The type of synovial joint present in knee :
(A) Hinge joint
(B) Pivot joint
(C) Saddle joint
(D) Ball and socket joint
7. Nissl granules are the characteristic of which cell?
(A) Muscle cell
(B) Nerve cell
(C) Bone cell
(D) Epithelial cell
8. The leutinising hormone has the highest concentration during
(A) Menstruation
(B) Pregnancy
(C) Ovulation
(D) Parturition
9. Which is the genotype of blood group ‘AB’?
(A) IA IA
(B) IA IB
(C) IAi
(D) IBi
10. The most abundant leucocyte present in the blood :
(A) Neutrophil
(B) Monocyte
(C) Oesinophil
(D) Basophil
11. The gland that is attached to the kidney is :
(A) Pineal gland
(B) Thymus gland
(C) Adrenal gland
(D) Thyroid gland
12. The ‘Fovea’ at the retina of eye contains––––––––––––– cells?
(A) Only rods
(B) Only cones
(C) Both rods and cones
(D) None of the above
13. Which among the following is a wrong statement about a skeletal muscle?
(A) Presence of striations
(B) Voluntary in action
(C) Connected with bone
(D) Presence of intercated disc
14. The middle layer of wall of uterus is :
(A) Myometrium
(B) Perimetrium
(C) Mesothelium
(D) Endometrium
15. Gastric gland cell that produce HCl is :
(A) Mucus cell
(B) Cheif cells
(C) Oxyntic cells
(D) Serosa cells
16. Name the bone present in the pelvic girdle :
(A) Ischium
(B) Pubis
(C) Ilium
(D) All of the above
17. Which among the following is hyperglycemic hormone?
(A) Insulin
(B) Melatonin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Thyroxin
18. Dental formula in adult human is :
(A) 2123/2123
(B) 2132/2132
(C) 2321/2321
(D) 2114/2114
19. The function of ‘Sertoli cells’ that is found inside the testes :
(A) Spermatogenesis
(B) Nutrition
(C) Protection
(D) Secretion
20. The disorder ‘Night blindness’ is due to the deficiency of :
(A) Vitamin ‘A’
(B) Vitamin ‘D’
(C) Vitamin ‘E’
(D) Vitamin ‘C’
21. The immediate action to prevent further damage caused by corrosive acid chemical burns :
(A) Wash the part with weak acid solution and plenty of water
(B) Flood the part with water, Bathe the part with an alkaline solution
(C) Flood the part with warm water
(D) Give plenty of oral fluids to drink
22. Constrictive bandage to be applied on the victims heart side of the Snake bite, is tighly enough :
(A) To stop the circulation through the veins of the bitten limb
(B) To arrest the arterial circulation in the bitten limb
(C) Cause congestion of the limb and to increase bleeding from the wound
(D) None of the above
23. Which blood vessels carry bright red blood, in hemorrhage?
(A) Vein
(B) Capillary
(C) Artery
(D) Above all
24. The important clinical features which is present during excessive exposure to the sun :
(A) Numbness in body
(B) Breathing difficulty
(C) Intense pain over the body
(D) The skin is red, swollen, painful
25. A heavy victim can be lifted without undue strain for the first aider. The principles of lifting a victim are as follows, EXCEPT :
(A) Use the most powerful muscles of your body for lifting
(B) Keep the weight of the victim as close to your body as possible
(C) Keep your head and back lean forward to lift the body of victim
(D) Use your entire upper limb to strengthen your grasp on the victims body
26. Disease characterised by the decreased blood supply to the brain, due to blood clot, hemorrhage or embolus is termed as :
(A) Encephalitis
(B) Angina pectoris
(C) Shock
(D) Stroke
27. In stock keep the patient in supine position with his head lower than the rest of the body, this is to :
(A) To improve the venous return from the lower limbs and improve blood supply to the brain
(B) To reduce pain in lower limbs
(C) To improve respiration and blood supply to lungs
(D) None of these
28. The term difficulty in breathing is known as :
(A) Bradypnea
(B) Apnea
(C) Orthopnea
(D) Dyspnea
29. The normal blood pressure of an adult :
(A) 130/90 mm Hg
(B) 120/80 mm Hg
(C) 110/70 mm Hg
(D) 120/90 mm Hg
30. Patient with prolonged bed rest and restricted movements develop a deformity called :
(A) Talipes equino valgus
(B) Talipes equino varus
(C) Ptosis
(D) Foot drop
31. Fluid and nutrients are introduced into the stomach through a tube, when the patient is unable to eat food :
(A) Compression
(B) Decompression
(C) Lavage
(D) Gavag
32. It is the instillation of solution into the lower bowel and rectum:
(A) Vaginal Douche
(B) Catheterization
(C) Enema
(D) None of the above
33. DOTS plus programme launched in the year :
(A) 2007
(B) 2006
(C) 2005
(D) 2008
34. 1gm protein yields :
(A) 9 calories
(B) 4 calories
(C) 6 calories
(D) 5 calories
35. Which of the following is not involved in cardio pulmonary resuscitation?
(A) Start mouth to mouth breathing
(B) External cardiac massage
(C) Do Heimlichs maneuver
(D) Keep the airway patent
36. It is the process of destroying all types of pathogenic and non pathogenic organisms including virus and spores :
(A) Decontamination
(B) Fumigation
(C) Sterilization
(D) Disinfection
37. Diarrhea, cholera, typhoid are caused by :
(A) Pollution of water and food
(B) Hereditary diseases
(C) Life style diseases
(D) None of these
38. The early signs and symptoms of tuberculosis:
(A) Cough, fever, weight loss
(B) Diarrhea, weakness, loss of weight
(C) Abdomen pain, vomiting, fatigue
(D) Anemia, dyspnea, fatigue
39. It is yellowish discolouration in the sclera of the eyes, mucous membrane and the skin due to a disease condition:
(A) Typhoid
(B) Jaundice
(C) H1N1
(D) Anemia
41. Unpleasant odour of breath is known as :
(A) Gingivitis
(B) Glossitis
(C) Stomatitis
(D) Halitosis
42. The action taken prior to the onset of disease which removes the possibility that the disease will ever occur is :
(A) Secondary prevention
(B) Tertiary prevention
(C) Primary prevention
(D) None of the above
43. Interval between entrance of pathogen into body and appearance of first symptoms :
(A) Incubation period
(B) Prodromal stage
(C) Illness stage
(D) Convalescence stage
44. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes :
(A) Night blindness
(B) Blepharitis
(C) Conjunctivitis
(D) Trachoma
45. Excessive shedding of the scalp skin is known as :
(A) Scabies
(B) Ring worm infection
(C) Falling of Hair
(D) Dandruff
46. Immunity that a person inherits or gets through genetic structure is known as :
(A) Acquired immunity
(B) Active immunity
(C) Passive immunity
(D) Natural immunity
47. Which vaccine is used against tuberculosis prevention?
(A) TT
(B) BCG
(C) MMR
(D) OPV
48. Which of the following is not bactericidal drug?
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Ethambutol
(C) Pyrazinamide
(D) INH
49. Tuberculosis is transmitted mainly by :
(A) Water
(B) Droplet Infection
(C) Blood
(D) Mosquitoe
50. Fungal infection between the toes of foot is known as :
(A) Madura foot
(B) Hyperidrosis
(C) Athletes foot
(D) Bromhidrosis
51. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is discovered by :
(A) Louis Pasture
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Alexander Fleming
(D) Robert Hooke
52. An AFB smear consistently found to be positive would have to contain how many bacilli/ml of sputum :
(A) 10000 AFB per ml
(B) 5000 ABF per ml
(C) 1000 ABF per ml
(D) 100 ABF perml
53. False positive AFB smear means :
(A) Acid fast staining of organism other than mycobacteria
(B) Acid fast staining of food particles or fibers
(C) Spores of fungus
(D) All of the above
54. Tuberculosis is spread from sputum smear positive patient to others is by :
(A) Inhalation of air born particles with mycobacteria
(B) Through the mycobacteria contaminated food intake
(C) Mycobacteria entered through wounds of the skin
(D) All of the above
55. At present anti TB drugs in RNTCP of India is given as :
(A) Daily short course therapy
(B) Intermittent short course therapy
(C) According to the nutritional status of the patients
(D) All of the above
56. In treatment card “Name of Treatment Centre” :
(A) The center from treatment started
(B) The center from TB diagnosed
(C) The center from patient taking treatment
(D) All of the above
57. Type of Patient marked in treatment card all are correct EXCEPT :
(A) N–New
(B) D–Death
(C) R–Relapse
(D) T–Transfer
58. Positive result in Laboratory Form for Sputum Examination at Results section written in :
(A) Blue ink
(B) Green ink
(C) Red ink
(D) Any ink but neat
59. Treatment completed patient which of the following is correct :
(A) Sputum smear-positive case who has completed treatment with negative Smears at the end of the intensive phase but none at the end of treatment
(B) Sputum smear-negative patient who has received a full course of treatment and
has not become smear-positive during or at the end of treatment
(C) Extra-pulmonary patient who has received a full course of treatment and has not
become smear-positive during or at the end of treatment
(D) All of the above
60. Defaulted TB patient means :
(A) Registered but ATT not taken
(B) Stopped ATT before 3 weeks
(C) Stopped ATT after 6 weeks only
(D) Has not taken anti-TB drugs consecutively for 2 months or more
61. Tuberculosis Research Centre in India is situated at :
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
62. National TB Centre in India is situated at :
(A) Mysore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Bengaluru
63. After 2 months of conventional anti TB therapy sputum examination is positive it suggestive of :
(A) Return after treatment
(B) Inadequate dosage
(C) Resistant TB
(D) Improper treatment
64. Most correct test to find TB infection in a country is :
(A) X-ray examination
(B) Clinical examination
(C) Sputum examination
(D) Tuberculin test
65. Tuberculin test help to find out :
(A) Prior exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) If Negative means no TB
(C) Immune status of the patient
(D) Highly positive means active TB
66. In RNTCP CAT- 1ATT sputum examination done at :
(A) 1,3,5 months
(B) 2,4,6 months
(C) 2,5,7 months
(D) 2,3,5 months
67. One sputum positive TB patient can infect :
(A) 1-2 patients per year
(B) 5-6 person per year
(C) 10-15 person per year
(D) 100-200 person per year
68. What is the RNTCP cure rate?
(A) 100%
(B) 92%
(C) 80%
(D) 65%
69. Which drug is not include in RNTCP CAT 1 :
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Ethambutol
(D) Levofloxacin
70. By WHO definition of MDR TB means resistance to :
(A) Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
(B) Ethambutol and INH with or without other drugs
(C) INH and Pyrazinamide
(D) INH and Rifampicin with or without other drugs
71. Combination of multiple drugs given in TB treatment is :
(A) Broad spectrum
(B) Reduce side effect
(C) Prevent resistance
(D) None of the above
72. Which of the following drug is not use in pregnancy :
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Ethambutol
(D) Streptomycin
73. WHO best criteria to diagnose pulmonary TB is
(A) Chest pain
(B) Sputum positive
(C) Cough more than 3 weeks
(D) X-ray finding suggestive of active pulmonary TB
74. Who is the following person had contact with smear positive TB need preventive
chemotherapy?
(A) Pregnant women
(B) Old aged
(C) Child below 6 years
(D) Child below 13 years
75. One tuberculin unit is :
(A) 1 unit of PPD RT3
(B) 0.0001 mg
(C) 0.1 mg BCG
(D) None of the above
76. Smear positive means :
(A) One sample which is positive
(B) One sample positive out of two samples
(C) Two samples positive out of three samples
(D) All of the above
77. TB in diabetes is true :
(A) Severe diseases
(B) High incidence
(C) Atypical presentation
(D) All of the above
78. Prevalence of Tubercular infection in India is :
(A) 35%
(B) 40%
(C) 53.7%
(D) 60%
79. When to give BCG vaccination ideally?
(A) As early after birth
(B) Up to age of 5 years
(C) Up to age of 10 years
(D) None of the above
80. State TB Centre of Kerala is situated at :
(A) Kochi
(B) Kozhikode
(C) Thiruvananthapuram
(D) Thrissu
81. In which Indian State the Harappan site Kalibangan is located?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
82. In which year Indian National congress was founded?
(A) 1757
(B) 1790
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
83. Who is popularly known as ‘Kumara Guru’?
(A) Poikayil Yohannan
(B) Abraham Malpan
(C) Kumaranasan
(D) Sree Narayana Guru
84. At which place Gandhiji experimented with Satyagraha for the first time in India :
(A) Champaran
(B) Belgam
(C) Kheda
(D) Sabarmati
85. Who serves as the defence minister of India at present?
(A) Rajnath Singh
(B) Nirmala Seetharaman
(C) Arun Jaitley
(D) Sushma Swaraj
86. Which day is observed as ‘International Women’s day’?
(A) January 8
(B) February 8
(C) March 8
(D) April 8
87. Which is the birth place of Sree Narayana Guru?
(A) Panmana
(B) Kannanmula
(C) Varkkala
(D) Chempazhanti
88. Who led the Villuvandi strike in Kerala?
(A) Pandit Karuppan
(B) Chatampi Swamikal
(C) Ayyankali
(D) K.Kelappan
89. Among the following which is not a west-flowing river in Kerala?
(A) Chaliyar
(B) Periyar
(C) Kabani
(D) Bharathapuzha
90. In which district of Kerala the archaeological site Pattanam is located?
(A) Wayanad
(B) Palakkad
(C) Thrissur
(D) Ernakulam
91. Who won Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2017?
(A) Vinod Khanna
(B) Manoj Kumar
(C) Sashi Kapoor
(D) Amitabh Bachchan
92. Which Indian State prepared ‘Water ATM policy’ to provide clean drinking water?
(A) Haryana
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Kerala
(D) TamilNadu
93. Name the Nair social reformist who revolted against Brahmin dominance in Kerala?
(A) Vaikunta Swami
(B) Chatampi Swamikal
(C) Thycaud Ayya
(D) Vagbhatananda
94. Who led ‘Savarna Jatha’ as a part of Vaikkom Satyagraha?
(A) Dr. Palpu
(B) C.V. Kunhiraman
(C) Mannath Padmanabhan
(D) K.P. Kesava Menon
95. Who founded the Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha?
(A) Makti Thangal
(B) Vakkam Abdul Khadir Maulavi
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(D) Habeeb Mohamed
96. Who acts as the Chairperson of the Niti Aayog?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Defence Minister
97. Name the Bengal Nawab who was defeated by the British in the Battle plassey :
(A) Mir Kasim
(B) Shah Alam II
(C) Siraj-ud-daula
(D) Shuja-ud-daula
98. Name the British viceroy who announced the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord Willingdon
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Curzon
99. Who is called the ‘Father of Modern Indian Renaissance’?
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar
(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
100. From which country India adopted the Five year plans :
(A) Russia
(B) America
(C) Japan
(D) Chin
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